Sports Administration

a. technical skills

b. conceptual skills

c. human or personal skills

d. all of the above

a. effectively control work habits of employees

b. develop employees to their full potential

c. effectively lead employees

d. achieve desired organizational objectives

a. the results they achieve

b. the full development of the personnel they manage

c. the acceptance of total responsibility

a. W. Frederick Taylor

b. Frank Gilbreth

c. Henri Fayol

d. G. Elton Mayo

a. delegating

b. organizing

c. leading

d. decision-making

a. a science

b. an art

c. a science and art

d. a common sense activity

a. monies

b. art

c. people

d. supplies and equipment

a. Title IX

b. OCR

c. proportionality

d. compliance

a. scientific approaches

b. laws and one-to-one relationships

c. research findings

d. rules of science

a. training one has received

b. innate feelings of an individual

c. how you do something, or the way you do it

d. fundamental management concepts

a. 300

b. 250

c. 210

d. 180

a. systems

b. process

c. contingency

d. mathematical

a. a protege of W. Frederick Taylor

b. a management pioneer working in about 1900

c. the chief researcher of the Hawthorne Studies

d. a proponent of pay as a major motivator

a. the 1950s

b. the nineteenth century

c. the twentieth century

d. none of the above

a. organizing

b. controlling

a. following-up

b. problem solving

c. controlling

d. coordinating

b. human/personal skills

c. artistic

d. conceptual

a. group leaders

b. coordinators

c. supervisors

a. group leader

b. coordinator

c. professor

a. is staggering

b. ranks second in importance behind healthcare

c. is significant, but hardly “major”

d. is of little importance

a. laws and regulations

b. custom or long-established practice

c. competitors

d. the public

a. lowering output and increasing costs

b. placing a drag on efforts to improve productivity

c. limiting management’s authority

d. creating uncertain economic conditions

a. form the moral conscience of the organization

b. control employee and management’s behavior

c. influence management’s decision making

a. common morality

b. social responsibility

c. a code of ethics

d. ethical standards

a. theology

b. teleology

c. psychology

d. physiology
26

Marks: 1

2-06. The concept of social responsibility in America originated with ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. W. Frederick Taylor

b. Frank Gilbreth

c. Henry L. Gantt

d. Henri Fayol

Question 27

Marks: 1

2-07. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven principles that guide decision making toward better business ethics?

Choose one answer.

a. Always tell the truth to customers in your advertising.

b. Achieve the most social good that you can.

c. Never follow standard business practices.

d. Treat employees with dignity and respect.

Question 28

Marks: 1

2-08. The major legal concepts involved with the preparation of a contract are ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. offer and acceptance

b. consideration

c. legality and capacity

d. all of the above

Question 29

Marks: 1

2-09. The Constitution is the basic law of the U.S. and was drawn up in ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. 1776

b. 1778

c. 1787

d. 1805

Question 30

Marks: 1

2-10. The development of athletic opportunities for women may, to a large extent, be attributed to ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. the ERA movement

b. the NOW organization

c. EEOC legislation

d. Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972

Question 31

Marks: 1

2-11. The Sherman Act was passed in ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. 1972

b. 1936

c. 1964

d. 1890

Question 32

Marks: 1

2-12. Which professional team sport is exempt from antitrust laws?

Choose one answer.

a. baseball

b. hockey

c. basketball

d. football

Question 33

Marks: 1

2-13. The federal court system in the United States consists of ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. the Supreme Court

b. 13 courts of appeal

c. 94 district courts

d. all of the above

Question 34

Marks: 1

2-14. Capacity is defined as ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. the underlying bargain of a contract

b. a conditional promise

c. the ability to understand the nature and effects of one’s acts

d. an exchange of value between one person and another

Question 35

Marks: 1

2-15. The document that creates a legal obligation to fulfill promises made in an agreement is ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. an offer

b. a contract

c. a consideration

d. a legality

Question 36

Marks: 1

2-16. Agency law establishes the legal parameters in ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. the relationship between players and a team

b. the relationship between a principal and an agent

c. the agreement between an agent and a team

d. the relationship among the principal, agent, and team spokesperson

Question 37

Marks: 1

2-17. The key language in Title IX is ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. “receiving any financial assistance”

b. “receiving Federal financial assistance”

c. “receiving Federal financial assistance and maintaining men’s and women’s sports programs”

d. “only major college and university institutions receiving financial assistance are obligated to Title IX”

Question 38

Marks: 1

2-18. Equal rights amendments have had a greater impact ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. as a result of the passage of the Equal Rights amendment in 1972

b. at the state level than at the federal level

c. in professional sports than in amateur sports

d. because ERA statutes exist in all 50 states

Question 39

Marks: 1

2-19. The most celebrated case involving an amateur athletic association and antitrust laws was ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. NCAA v. Board of Regents of the University of Oklahoma

b. NCCA v. Board of Regents of the University of Florida

c. Haywood v. National Basketball Association

d. none of the above

Question 40

Marks: 1

2-20. The legal fight between the NCAA and the University of Oklahoma resulted in ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. an agreement to broadcast games of the university at least four times a season

b. NCAA’s national television contract being declared in violation of antitrust laws

c. a verdict favorable to the University of Oklahoma and the University of Georgia

d. both b and c

Question 41

Marks: 1

3-01. There is no such thing as perfect planning because ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. people are involved

b. risks and uncertainties exist

c. a shortage of needed resources exists

d. human frailties exist

Question 42

Marks: 1

3-02. The number-one cause of organizational failure is ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. poor organization

b. untrained personnel

c. weak managerial decision making

d. poor managerial planning

Question 43

Marks: 1

3-03. When planning, time standards should be set ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. that are reasonable

b. at a level of excellence

c. so that all can meet them

d. based on participatory discussions

Question 44

Marks: 1

3-04. Without sound planning, an organization ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. will flounder

b. has no direction

c. will operate inefficiently

d. all of the above

Question 45

Marks: 1

3-05. Standing and single-use plans are part of ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. strategic planning

b. operational planning

c. functional planning

d. none of the above

Question 46

Marks: 1

3-06. A long-range plan of a large organization may be for ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. 1 to 2 years

b. 15 to 20 years

c. 5 years

d. 3 to 5 years

Question 47

Marks: 1

3-07. The narrowest form of “red tape” is called a ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. policy

b. procedure

c. system

d. rule

Question 48

Marks: 1

3-08. The visual control chart developed in 1917 by _____________ has been usefully implemented to control plans.

Choose one answer.

a. Frederick W. Taylor

b. Henry L. Gantt

c. Frank Gilbreth

d. Henri Fayol

Question 49

Marks: 1

3-09. The formalization of tangible objectives in writing comes from ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. the generation of ideas

b. higher management

c. pressing need

d. demands of the job

Question 50

Marks: 1

3-10. When a manager predicts that an event might happen and assigns a probability that it will happen, the event is viewed as ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. an uncertainty

b. a risk

c. a certainty

d. intuition

51

Marks: 1

3-11. When managers develop plans for achieving short-term objectives, it is called ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. strategic planning

b. operational planning

c. SWOT planning

d. conceptual planning

Question 52

Marks: 1

3-12. Executives in small organizations view long-term planning as covering ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. 7 to 10 years

b. 10 to 15 years

c. 3 to 5 years

d. 5 to 20 years

Question 53

Marks: 1

3-13. The vision and acumen needed to plan effectively for the long term are facets of the ____________ skill that characterizes successful top managers.

Choose one answer.

a. technical

b. conceptual

c. human/personal

d. all of the above

Question 54

Marks: 1

3-14. Strategic management is the process of managerial decision making and implementation of plans that directly affect ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. quality of performance

b. survival of an organization

c. the control of implemented plans

d. all of the above

Question 55

Marks: 1

3-15. Strategies can be classified as ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. grand or corporate

b. business

c. functional

d. all of the above

Question 56

Marks: 1

3-16. Strategic planning is the process of determining an organization’s long-term goals and objectives in compliance with ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. available resources

b. skills of employees

c. government regulations

d. its mission

Question 57

Marks: 1

3-17. Commonsense objectives of good strategic planning include ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. becoming the model for continued growth

b. increasing the odds the firm will survive over the long term

c. providing a long-run planning framework within which short-run plans also fit

d. all of the above

Question 58

Marks: 1

3-18. A major difference between short-term and long-term plans is the inclusion of __________ in long-term.

Choose one answer.

a. environmental factors

b. internal resources

c. budgetary restrictions

d. legal consequences

Question 59

Marks: 1

3-19. The mission of an organization evolves from its ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. unique characteristics

b. philosophy

c. culture

d. all of the above

Question 60

Marks: 1

3-20. SWOT analysis is used when management wants to ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. inventory the organization resources

b. compare current strategy with current information

c. formulate new strategy

d. identify strategic strengths and weaknesses

Question 61

Marks: 1

4-01. The essential activity that justifies the existence of managers is ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. planning

b. decision making

c. organizing

d. controlling

Question 62

Marks: 1

4-02. Decision making involves selecting a course of action ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. that minimizes problems

b. that solves problems

c. from among alternative choices

d. that is best for the organization

Question 63

Marks: 1

4-03. Nonprogrammed decisions are those that apply to ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. unusual problems

b. unique situations

c. problems that are new

d. all of the above

Question 64

Marks: 1

4-04. The manager is said to operate under the condition of ___________, when it is known theoretically exactly what will happen.

Choose one answer.

a. certainty

b. risk

c. uncertainty

d. none of the above

Question 65

Marks: 1

4-05. Decisions made under conditions of uncertainty carry a higher degree of ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. anxiety

b. stress

c. tension

d. unreliability

Question 66

Marks: 1

4-06. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) is an example of which form of decision making?

Choose one answer.

a. logical

b. rational

c. intuitive

d. quantitative

Question 67

Marks: 1

4-07. The science of management is the application of the ____________ to the analysis of general management problems.

Choose one answer.

a. quantitative method

b. mathematical approach

c. scientific method

d. holistic approach

Question 68

Marks: 1

4-08. Creative problem solving and decision making approaches include ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. synectics

b. the Gordon technique

c. brainstorming

d. all of the above

Question 69

Marks: 1

4-09. Innovation is ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. the generation of new ideas

b. the practical application of new ideas

c. a form of crisis creativity

d. a form of purposeful creativity

Question 70

Marks: 1

4-10. Optimizing means selecting the best alternative in light of ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. some minimum standard of satisfaction

b. facts, considerations, and options

c. what higher management wishes

d. the research findings

Question 71

Marks: 1

4-11. Which of the following is NOT a programmed decision?

Choose one answer.

a. when to pay overtime

b. how to purchase supplies

c. how to overcome low employee morale

d. who drives the organization’s vehicles

Question 72

Marks: 1

4-12. The autonomy to make decisions does NOT depend on the ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. level of education of the manager

b. level of authority of the manager

c. nature and traditions of the organization

d. personalities of the manager’s bosses, peers, and employees

Question 73

Marks: 1

4-13. A general management problem is any kind of internal problem an organization has with anything, so long as _____________ are.

Choose one answer.

a. computers

b. people

c. money

d. animals

Question 74

Marks: 1

4-14. General managers face about __________ technical, or nonhuman, problems on a daily basis.

Choose one answer.

a. 25%

b. 15%

c. 10%

d. 30%

Question 75

Marks: 1

4-15. Management science is also called ___________.

Choose one answer.

a. operations and development

b. the intuitive approach

c. the Cook and Russell method

d. operations research
76
Marks: 1
4-16. People who do not exhaustively search for the optimum alternative, selecting instead the first alternative to meet some minimum standards of satisfaction, are said to be ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. placating

b. satisficing

c. optimizing

d. rationalizing

Question 77
Marks: 1
4-17. Group decision making is a form of ______________ management.
Choose one answer.

a. participative

b. individualized

c. authoritative

d. meaningful

Question 78
Marks: 1
4-18. Purposeful creativity is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. spontaneously contrived out of need

b. a bad idea in business

c. a planned, continuous effort by management to encourage creativity

d. a technique used by management to facilitate budgets

Question 79
Marks: 1
4-19. Creativity is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. a form of crisis creativity

b. a form of purposeful activity

c. the practical application of new ideas

d. the generation of new ideas

Question 80
Marks: 1
4-20. Which of the following is NOT a technique organizations use to stimulate group creativity?
Choose one answer.

a. brainstorming

b. nominal group process

c. intuition

d. synectics

Question 81
Marks: 1
5-01. Defects in the organization become the primary cause of __________.
Choose one answer.

a. inefficiency

b. daily management problems

c. poor quality

d. low morale

Question 82
Marks: 1
5-02. The primary purpose of organizing is to generate __________.
Choose one answer.

a. a higher esprit de corps

b. a better team spirit

c. an increase in efficiency

d. more employee job satisfaction

Question 83
Marks: 1
5-03. The principle of work specialization was introduced in the U.S. by __________.
Choose one answer.

a. Adam Smith

b. Sir James Steuart

c. Eli Whitney

d. Thomas Moore

Question 84
Marks: 1
5-04. The bureaucratic model of organizations was developed by __________.
Choose one answer.

a. Henri L. Gantt

b. Max Weber

c. Mooney and Reiley

d. the U.S. government

Question 85
Marks: 1
5-05. The scalar principle of organization is related to __________.
Choose one answer.

a. the assignment of responsibility and authority

b. the parity principle

c. the span of management

d. the chain of command

Question 86
Marks: 1
5-06. Historically, organization theory is categorized as __________.
Choose one answer.

a. classical

b. modern

c. neoclassical

d. all of the above

Question 87
Marks: 1
5-07. The most basic form of structuring an organization is called __________.
Choose one answer.

a. functional departmentation

b. product departmentation

c. location departmentation

d. customer departmentation

Question 88
Marks: 1
5-08. Staff functions relate _________ to the primary purpose of an organization.
Choose one answer.

a. indirectly

b. directly

c. directly and indirectly

d. none of the above

Question 89
Marks: 1
5-09. Tall organizations tend to be __________.
Choose one answer.

a. more centralized in control

b. more bureaucratic in nature

c. described as vertical

d. all of the above

Question 90
Marks: 1
5-10. A formal organization is described as __________.
Choose one answer.

a. a group of people working together

b. a clearly defined hierarchy

c. a combined joint effort

d. all of the above

Question 91
Marks: 1
5-11. The key to sustaining success and economic growth in the U.S. is to __________.
Choose one answer.

a. getting more people into the labor force

b. reducing government restrictions

c. increasing productivity

d. slashing entitlements

Question 92
Marks: 1
5-12. The first step in job design is __________.
Choose one answer.

a. conduct time and motion analysis

b. conduct job evaluation

c. determine the job objective

d. identify individual tasks of the job

Question 93
Marks: 1
5-13. Job depth refers to __________.
Choose one answer.

a. an employee’s flexibility in controlling work performance

b. the scope of an employee’s job

c. the narrowness of the work

d. none of the above

Question 94
Marks: 1
5-14. A widely used job design method is __________.
Choose one answer.

a. time and motion analysis

b. job rotation

c. job enlargement

d. all of the above

Question 95
Marks: 1
5-15. The objective of enriching jobs is __________.
Choose one answer.

a. high employee motivation

b. low job scope

c. low job depth

d. none of the above

Question 96
Marks: 1
5-16. Job descriptions and job specifications originate from __________.
Choose one answer.

a. job analysis

b. job evaluations

c. personal interviews

d. time and motion analysis

Question 97
Marks: 1
5-17. Informal groups have __________.
Choose one answer.

a. elected leaders

b. indigenous leaders

c. appointed leaders

d. rotating leaders

Question 98
Marks: 1
5-18. Job enrichment increases an employee’s __________.
Choose one answer.

a. job depth

b. job scope

c. job security

d. job performance

Question 99
Marks: 1
5-19. The value of work groups to their members does NOT include __________.
Choose one answer.

a. social satisfaction

b. job security as a form of safety

c. value in decision making

d. increased self-esteem and dignity

Question 100
Marks: 1
5-20. Standing committees are also called __________.
Choose one answer.

a. temporary committees

b. ad hoc committees

c. permanent committees

d. task forces

101
Marks: 1
6-01. The staffing activity is essential, because it directly ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. impacts the economic success of the organization

b. affects functions of personnel departments

c. controls the size of the labor force

d. relates to the quality of personnel employed

Question 102
Marks: 1
6-02. Ultimate responsibility for success or failure in staffing organizations rests with ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. human resource departments

b. personnel departments

c. line managers

d. staff specialists

Question 103
Marks: 1
6-03. The formulation of a detailed plan to recruit for and fill jobs is one objective of ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. management by objectives (MBO)

b. human resource planning (HRP)

c. top-level management

d. department heads

Question 104
Marks: 1
6-04. Federal legislation that guaranteed employees the right to organize and bargain collectively is called the ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. Clayton Act

b. Taft-Hartley Act

c. Fair Labor Standards Act

d. Civil Rights Act

Question 105
Marks: 1
6-05. Job specifications originate from ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. job evaluations

b. job descriptions

c. job rankings

d. job appraisals

Question 106
Marks: 1
6-06. One of the best sources of employees to fill jobs is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. the organization itself

b. placement services

c. friends of present employees

d. all of the above

Question 107
Marks: 1
6-07. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) guidelines make it illegal to ask an applicant questions about ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. prior work experience

b. travel experience

c. military service

d. age

Question 108
Marks: 1
6-08. The purpose of assessment centers is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. to evaluate new applicants

b. to periodically test present employees’ skills

c. to predict management potential of participants

d. to annually assess the performance of top management

Question 109
Marks: 1
6-09. Training needs of individual employees can be assessed through ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. morale audits

b. employee surveys

c. performance appraisals

d. assessment centers

Question 110
Marks: 1
6-10. Documentation is anything about a worker’s performance that is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. in writing

b. exceptionally good

c. subject to criminal investigation

d. contrary to what is good for the organization

Question 111
Marks: 1
6-11. The most common type of management problem pertains to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. financial control

b. the quality of end products

c. employee motivation

d. competent bosses

Question 112
Marks: 1
6-12. Employee motives originate from ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. physiological needs

b. psychological needs

c. monetary needs

d. physiological and psychological needs

Question 113
Marks: 1
6-13. The oldest theory of motivation is based on ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. monetary rewards

b. rewards for good performance and punishment for bad performance

c. promotions

d. psychological rewards

Question 114
Marks: 1
6-14. Motivation theories based on monetary rewards are tied directly to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. attendance

b. job productivity

c. effort

d. hours worked

Question 115
Marks: 1
6-15. In need hierarchy theory, the highest order of need is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. safety

b. self-actualization

c. love

d. self-esteem

Question 116
Marks: 1
6-16. The basis for Herzberg’s motivation theory is that all work-related factors can be grouped into one of two categories, which are ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. hygiene factors and dissatisfiers

b. hygiene factors and maintenance factors

c. maintenance factors and motivation factors

d. motivators and job satisfiers

Question 117
Marks: 1
6-17. The book The Human Side of Enterprise introduced which motivation theory?
Choose one answer.

a. the need hierarchy theory

b. the dual factor theory

c. theory X and theory Y

d. the preference-expectancy theory

Question 118
Marks: 1
6-18. One assumption of theory X is that ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. work is as normal as play

b. the average person will both accept and seek responsibility

c. the intellectual abilities of most people are underused

d. the average person has an inherent dislike of work

Question 119
Marks: 1
6-19. Morale is an intangible factor that relates to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. any and all employees

b. only individual employees, one at a time

c. only at the management level

d. a company’s president only

Question 120
Marks: 1
6-20. The rabble hypothesis assumes people work only for ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. recognition

b. pay

c. promotion

d. job security

Question 121
Marks: 1
7-01. The Pygmalion effect is also known as the ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. participative approach

b. self-fulfilling prophecy

c. charismatic approach

d. autocratic approach

Question 122
Marks: 1
7-02. Leadership styles can be classified as ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. situational

b. positional

c. indigenous

d. none of the above

Question 123
Marks: 1
7-03. An effective leader tailors his or her style to ___________ leadership.
Choose one answer.

a. laissez-faire

b. situational

c. autocratic

d. participative

Question 124
Marks: 1
7-04. Rensis Likert concluded that the most effective style of leadership is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. authoritative

b. participative

c. benevolent

d. consultative

Question 125
Marks: 1
7-05. The contingency theory of leadership evolved from the work of ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. Likert

b. Fiedler

c. Blake

d. Mouton
126
Marks: 1
7-06. The path-goal approach to leadership is a ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. contingency approach

b. process approach

c. systems approach

d. behavioral approach

Question 127
Marks: 1
7-07. Perhaps leadership theory’s greatest usefulness to practicing managers is to provide ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. models of effective leadership

b. leadership styles to emulate

c. greater insight into the subject

d. none of the above

Question 128
Marks: 1
7-08. Personal characteristics of effective leaders include ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. being a risk taker

b. taking full responsibility for results

c. having good personal skills

d. all of the above

Question 129
Marks: 1
7-09. Some 2,500 years ago, the Chinese philosopher Lao-tzu said that when the best leader’s work is finished, the people will ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. honor and praise him

b. fear and despise him

c. make him a worshipped hero

d. say they did it themselves

Question 130
Marks: 1
7-10. According to Professor Fulmer, the “undefinable ingredient” of leaders is the ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. way they achieve objectives

b. way they can be identified

c. ability to share responsibility

d. ability to inspire

Question 131
Marks: 1
7-11. Leadership is defined as ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. the process of influencing or inspiring others

b. the process of influencing or inspiring others to perform their tasks willingly

c. holding a managerial or leadership position

d. being responsible for the behavior and job performance of others

Question 132
Marks: 1
7-12. Charismatic leaders rely heavily on ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. their communication skills

b. their leadership power

c. their personalities and skill to influence others

d. all of the above

Question 133
Marks: 1
7-13. Some say that the words manager and leader can be used interchangeably. Abraham Zaleznik said, ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. “Anyone with a good personality can be a good leader”

b. “Leaders are born, not made”

c. “Managers and leaders are very different kinds of people”

d. “Managers are leaders who have learned to influence people”

Question 134
Marks: 1
7-14. The statement “The field of leadership is presently in a state of ferment and confusion” may have been based on ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. the fact that there are over 5,000 studies dealing with leadership

b. disparities among approaches

c. confusing terms

d. all of the above

Question 135
Marks: 1
7-15. One of the oldest leadership theories is the ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. reward theory

b. coercive power theory

c. legitimate power theory

d. trait theory

Question 136
Marks: 1
7-16. A commonly identified leadership style is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. dynamic

b. charismatic

c. autocratic

d. subtle

Question 137
Marks: 1
7-17. The theory that says the expectation of an event can actually cause it to happen is known as the ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. Pygmalion effect

b. self-fulfilling prophecy theory

c. leadership expectation

d. both a and b

Question 138
Marks: 1
7-18. The contingency theory of leadership is also known as ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. situational theory

b. trait theory

c. systems theory

d. none of the above

Question 139
Marks: 1
7-19. According to the textbook authors, followers or transformational leaders are motivated to go the “extra mile” in their jobs because ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. leaders provide rewards if performance criteria are met

b. decisions are made by consensus and majority based on follower participation

c. followers fell trust, admiration, loyalty, and respect toward the leader

d. all of the above

Question 140
Marks: 1
7-20. A person’s formal position in an organization is his or her ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. reward power

b. coercive power

c. legitimate power

d. expert power

Question 141
Marks: 1
8-01. Perhaps the most important skill a manager needs is the ability to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. plan effectively

b. communicate effectively

c. decide effectively

d. control effectively

Question 142
Marks: 1
8-02. A communication is effective if the reader ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. listens and responds

b. understands and responds

c. watches closely

d. reads carefully

Question 143
Marks: 1
8-03. The channel selection component of communicating relates directly to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. encoding

b. decoding

c. idea origination

d. feedback

Question 144
Marks: 1
8-04. Empathizing in communication refers to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. a manager’s having sympathy for the receiver

b. a multifaceted approach in communication

c. putting yourself in the receiver’s place

d. clearly establishing the communication objective

Question 145
Marks: 1
8-05. A person’s ability to communicate varies directly with ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. years of experience on the job

b. knowledge and background of the receiver

c. the sender’s empathy

d. his or her own understanding of the subject

Question 146
Marks: 1
8-06. Communication tends to flow more freely in every direction in ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. highly centralized locations

b. highly decentralized locations

c. vertical organizations

d. straight-line structures

Question 147
Marks: 1
8-07. Problems related to electronic communication include ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. sterile communications

b. absence of personal contact

c. difficulty in projecting desired corporate image

d. all of the above

Question 148
Marks: 1
8-08. The informal communications system ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. is available to every employee

b. has no conscience

c. cannot tell the truth from lies

d. all of the above

Question 149
Marks: 1
8-09. An organization’s total communications program consists of ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. external communications

b. internal communications

c. the grapevine

d. all of the above

Question 150
Marks: 1
8-10. Decentralized organizations push decision making, authority, responsibility, and control ___________ as much as possible.
Choose one answer.

a. downward

b. laterally

c. upward

d. through communication systems

151
Marks: 1
8-11. One type of stress is ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. normal stress

b. eustress

c. distress

d. all of the above

Question 152
Marks: 1
8-12. Stress affects a person’s life ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. positively and negatively

b. positively

c. negatively

d. none of the above

Question 153
Marks: 1
8-13. Stress has been described as a ___________ to anything that changes the body.
Choose one answer.

a. specific physiological response

b. specific psychological response

c. nonspecific physiological response

d. nonspecific psychological response

Question 154
Marks: 1
8-14. Warning signs indicating excessive stress may include ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. physical weakness

b. apathy

c. anxiety

d. all of the above

Question 155
Marks: 1
8-15. Coping with stress means ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. stress is eliminated

b. an effort is made to handle stress

c. long-term counseling

d. seeing a physician immediately

Question 156
Marks: 1
8-16. Many physical ailments are associated with ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. an employee’s work environment

b. unhappy employees

c. employee and other types of stress

d. an employee’s work schedule

Question 157
Marks: 1
8-17. Employee job burnout can be identified when ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. employees overreact to problems on the job

b. employees constantly bicker with each other

c. work activity is no longer meaningful to an employee

d. employees have low morale

Question 158
Marks: 1
8-18. Employee assistance programs (EAPs) are created by organizations to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. help employees

b. save costs to the organization

c. help employees and save costs to the organization

d. project a positive image for the organization

Question 159
Marks: 1
8-19. The major distinction between EAPs and wellness programs is that wellness programs are ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. totally funded by employees

b. preventive in approach

c. corrective in approach

d. different in name only

Question 160
Marks: 1
8-20. In contrast to EAPs, company sponsored wellness program are ___________ in nature.
Choose one answer.

a. reactive

b. preventive

c. self-sufficient

d. confidential

Question 161
Marks: 1
9-01. Theoretically, which management function could be eliminated?
Choose one answer.

a. organizing

b. implementing

c. controlling

d. planning

Question 162
Marks: 1
9-02. A control activity is NOT a substitute for ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. sound management

b. good engineering design

c. competent planning

d. all of the above

Question 163
Marks: 1
9-03. The essence of control is to adjust work activity to ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. predetermined standards

b. a level of desired profitability

c. the skill and capacity of employees

d. none of the above

Question 164
Marks: 1
9-04. Any control program involves setting standards, appraising conformance to these standards, and ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. reviewing the process

b. taking corrective action

c. summarizing the results

d. locating any problem sources

Question 165
Marks: 1
9-05. Appraising conformance to the standards often is called ____________ conformance to the standards.
Choose one answer.

a. auditing

b. monitoring

c. inspecting

d. both b and c

Question 166
Marks: 1
9-06. More rigid control programs exist in ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. horizontal organizations

b. decentralized organizations

c. tall structures

d. flat structures

Question 167
Marks: 1
9-07. There is no need to control a work activity if ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. the cost is greater than the benefit

b. an organization has competent employees

c. customers have no complaints

d. managerial planning is sound

Question 168
Marks: 1
9-08. Total quality management (TQM) is a continuous process in which an organization analyzes how jobs are done, disposes of procedures that do not work, purges itself of stereotypical thinking, and uses ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. engineering methods for job design

b. robots whenever possible

c. all employees’ broadest expertise, and rewards it well

d. a “zero defects” approach to control quality of output

Question 169
Marks: 1
9-09. Final stage control information can be used to ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. locate the source of a problem

b. avoid providing an inferior product or service

c. compare actual costs against budget projections

d. improve performance in the future

Question 170
Marks: 1
9-10. Preventing employee resistance to control requires ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. forceful implementation

b. putting the control program in writing

c. employee involvement

d. verbal and written warnings about employee resistance

Question 171
Marks: 1
9-11. Performance appraisal also has been called ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. merit rating

b. employee evaluation

c. performance review

d. all of the above

Question 172
Marks: 1
9-12. One important use of performance appraisal information is to make decisions regarding ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. the annual budget

b. training and development

c. downsizing

d. none of the above

Question 173
Marks: 1
9-13. Management should definitely conduct performance appraisals ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. quarterly

b. annually

c. twice yearly

d. no definite answer

Question 174
Marks: 1
9-14. Personal factors affecting job performance include an employee’s ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. age

b. ethnic background

c. physical characteristics

d. none of the above

Question 175
Marks: 1
9-15. Job analysis is the basis for developing ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. job evaluations

b. job rotations

c. job enlargement

d. job descriptions
176
Marks: 1
9-16. The paired comparison method of performance appraisal compares each employee ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. against a group norm

b. with all other employees

c. with every other employee one at a time

d. none of the above

Question 177
Marks: 1
9-17. Assessment centers are an outgrowth of ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. the Office of Strategic Service

b. CIA training centers

c. AT&T executive training programs

d. none of the above

Question 178
Marks: 1
9-18. Which performance appraisal method is based on the “bell-shaped curve”?
Choose one answer.

a. ranking method

b. graphic rating scale

c. forced choice method

d. forced distribution method

Question 179
Marks: 1
9-19. Common errors made by appraisal program raters include the ____________.
Choose one answer.

a. latest behavior

b. status effect

c. halo effect

d. all of the above

Question 180
Marks: 1
9-20. Which kind of organization reward is NOT under control of higher management?
Choose one answer.

a. extrinsic

b. monetary

c. intrinsic

d. psychological

Question 181
Marks: 1
10-01. The Internet provides users access to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. a variety of electronic communications

b. information

c. retrieval and interaction capabilities

d. all of the above

Question 182
Marks: 1
10-02. Using the World Wide Web (WWW) or Internet allows one to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. browse materials

b. conduct commercial transactions

c. interact socially

d. all of the above

Question 183
Marks: 1
10-03. Telecommunications-enhanced services include ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. priority and overnight mail

b. UPS and Federal Express

c. voice mail and e-mail

d. none of the above

Question 184
Marks: 1
10-04. Developing an MIS requires ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. planning and refining

b. designing and implementing

c. both a and b

d. neither a nor b

Question 185
Marks: 1
10-05. Information centers are set up by organizations to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. accumulate large amounts of information

b. assist and train computer illiterate people

c. contract for independent information systems work

d. contract with outsourcing companies

Question 186
Marks: 1
10-06. Executive information systems (EIS) are designed to ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. be user-friendly

b. show trends and patterns

c. be helpful to strategic planners

d. all of the above

Question 187
Marks: 1
10-07. Which information system is directly involved in the decision-making process?
Choose one answer.

a. DSS

b. EIS

c. MIS

d. none of the above

Question 188
Marks: 1
10-08. Which information system integrates the collection, processing, storage, and transmission of information?
Choose one answer.

a. executive information systems

b. management information systems

c. decision support systems

d. data processing systems

Question 189
Marks: 1
10-09. An internal computer-based information system is called ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. the Internet

b. an insource

c. a web site

d. an intranet

Question 190
Marks: 1
10-10. Information overload implies that a manager ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. has more information than can be digested

b. receives too much information of poor quality

c. receives too much information at any one time

d. none of the above

Question 191
Marks: 1
10-11. New low-cost data communications infrastructures affect which business processes?
Choose one answer.

a. innovation

b. production

c. exchange and service

d. all of the above

Question 192
Marks: 1
10-12. Evolutionary change in telecommunications will include going from ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. basic to enhanced services

b. analog to digital networks

c. wireline to wireless equipment

d. all of the above

Question 193
Marks: 1
10-13. Operating an MIS properly must start with ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. identifying/defining information needs

b. transmitting data to the right manager

c. analyzing data

d. summarizing data

Question 194
Marks: 1
10-14. One information system that tends to be user-friendly is called ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. EIS

b. DSS

c. MIS

d. none of the above

Question 195
Marks: 1
10-15. Useful information can be described as being ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. relevant

b. complete

c. accurate and timely

d. all of the above

Question 196
Marks: 1
10-16. Data processing ___________.
Choose one answer.

a. provides the database for MIS

b. interprets data to provide information to management

c. is another name for MIS

d. is the newest type of information infrastructure