PHYSIO

1. Which class of chemical messenger facilitates WBC formation in bone marrow?

  A Interleukins   b. tumor necrotic factors c. colony stimulating factors  d. Interferons

 

2. Often a virus infected cell will release ___________to prevent spread of the infection.

a. histamine  b. Interferon  c. compliment  d. perforni

 

3. In the classical pathway of complement activation:

a. compliment is activated within liver cells & released into the blood

b. complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance

c. complement bonds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall

d. complement inhibits inflammation & binds to apianins

 

4. A membrane attack complex is a protein that:

a. triggers phagocytes of a target cell by a nearby macrophage or Europhile

b. Forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis

c. links a pathogen to a RBC so that it is carried to the liver or spleen 

d. stimulates basophils to attack a multicultural parasite in the body

 

5. Exudate refers to:

a. blood that escapes capillaries passes beyond the skin and leaves the body.

b. increased perfussion of capillary beds within the region of an injury

c. lymph that flows away from the heart and toward the site of injury.

d. fluid that leaves capillaries to “wash” the interstitial space of an injured tissue

e. clotting proteins that wall off microbes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.

 

6.Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

a. heat

b.redness

c. loss of function

d. numbness

e. swelling

 

7. Sustained fevers that are 1’C above normal core body temperature usually lead to irreversible brain damage:

a. True

b. False

c. Not sure

 

8. Antigens are:

a. something made by a WBC to destroy a pathogen

b. something that an antibody or T-lymphocyte binds to

1.Which class of chemical messenger facilitates WBC formation in bone marrow?

A Interleukins b. tumor necrotic factors c. colony stimulating factors d. Interferons

2. Often a virus infected cell will release ___________to prevent spread of the infection.

a. histamine b. Interferon c. compliment d. perforni

3. In the classical pathway of complement activation:

a. compliment is activated within liver cells & released into the blood

b. complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance

c. complement bonds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall

d. complement inhibits inflammation & binds to apianins

4. A membrane attack complex is a protein that:

a. triggers phagocytes of a target cell by a nearby macrophage or Europhile

b. Forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis

c. links a pathogen to a RBC so that it is carried to the liver or spleen

d. stimulates basophils to attack a multicultural parasite in the body

5. Exudate refers to:

a. blood that escapes capillaries passes beyond the skin and leaves the body.

b. increased perfussion of capillary beds within the region of an injury

c. lymph that flows away from the heart and toward the site of injury.

d. fluid that leaves capillaries to “wash” the interstitial space of an injured tissue

e. clotting proteins that wall off microbes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.

6.Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

a. heat

b.redness

c. loss of function

d. numbness

e. swelling

7. Sustained fevers that are 1’C above normal core body temperature usually lead to irreversible brain damage:

a. True

b. False

c. Not sure

8. Antigens are:

a. something made by a WBC to destroy a pathogen

b. something that an antibody or T-lymphocyte binds to

c. disorders involving overactive immune systems

d. membrane receptors on B lymphocytes

9. Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenic?

a. One that has small simple, familiar, and abundant

b. One that was small but complex and rare

c. One that was large complex, foreign and abundant

d. O

ne that was large but simple and familiar

10. Poison ivy contains a toxin that acts as a hapten by:

a. raising the body’s sensitivity to a wide variety of chemicals such as penicillin

b. cutting plasma protein antibodies in half

c. preventing effective immune responses by blocking release of bradykinin

d. combining with a body protein and then triggering an immune response.

11. Helper T lymphocytes are also known as:

a. catatonic T- lymphocytes

b. CD8 cells

c. CD4 cells

d. T8 cells

e. memory T-lymphocytes

12. Antigen presenting cells are ______, and they display antigens to both _______

and _________.

a. immune cells, B-lymphocytes, T-Lymphocytes

b. immune cells, helper T-lymphocytes, cytatoxic T lymphocytes

c. any nucleated cell, B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes

d. any blood cell, helper B lymphocytes, cytotoxic B lymphocytes

13. MHC class 1 molecules on a cell allow it to interact with:

a. natural killer cells

b. catatonic T lymphocytes

c. helper T- lymphocytes

14. Activation of lymphocytes occurs in:

a. primary lymphatic structures

b. secondary lymphatic structures

c. Tertiary lymphatic structures

d. effectors such as muscles & glands

15. When they leave the red marrow, pre T lymphocytes have:

a. only the CD4 protein

b. only the CD8 protein

c. both the CD4 and CD8 protein

d. neither the CD4 nor CD8 protein

e. either the CD4 or CD8 protein

16. If T lymphocytes that failed the negative selection test were not destroyed, one might predict that the persons immune system would:

a. cause autoimmune disorders

b. exhibit very delayed activity

c. be unable to recognize a particular class of pathogen

d. exhibit more negative membrane potentials

17. The first stimulation of helper T lymphocyte activation involves:

a. BCA of the helper T cell binding with free antigen and engulfing it.

b. CD8 of the helper T cell binding with MHC class III of the antigen presenting cell

c. CD4 of the helper T cell binding with MHC class I part of the antigen fragment

d. CD4 of the helper T cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen presenting cell

18. The second stimulation of cytotoxicT lymphocyte activation involves stimulation of the cell by interleukin 2 released by helper T lymphocytes:

a. true

b. false

c. not sure

19. The second stimulation of a B lymphocyte involves stimulation by:

a. II-2 released by catatonic T lymphocytes

b. If-4 released by helper T lymphocytes

c. bradykinin released by antigen presenting cells

d. antibodies released by antigens

20. The interstitial fluid plus any plasma proteins that escaped from the bloodstream are carried back to the blood via:

a. Blood capillaries

b. lymph nodes

c. lymphatic vessels

d. lymphatic organs

21. The ______drains the right arm and the right side of the heart and thorax.

a. jugular trunk

b. right lymphatic duct

c. thoracic lymphatic duct

d. lumbar lymphatic duct

22. Erythrocytes are antigen presenting cells:

a. true
b. false
c. not sure

23. The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:

a. have lymphocytes

b. produce hormones

c. have a cortex and medulla

d. directly fight antigens

24. The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the:

a. lingual tonsils

b. palatine tonsils

c. pharyngeal tonsils

d. peyers patch

25. Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?

a. skeletal muscle contraction

b. breathing

c. valves in lymph walls

d. smooth muscle contraction

26. The region of the spleen that rich in macrophages, reticular fibers and numerous RBC’sand functions to dispose of and recycle RBC’s is called:

a. white pulp

b. red pulp

c. cortex

d. medulla

27. Which of the following is not a method by which antibodies work?

a. neutralizing antigen

b. activating cytokines

c. enhancing phagocytes

d. agglutinating and precipitating antigen

28. Which of these choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

a. megakaryocytic

b. NK cell

c. hemoblast

d. polymorphonuclear cell

29. Which blood type is called the universal donor?

a. A

b. B

c. AB

d. O

30. Which of the following might trigger erythropolisis?

a. Hypoxia of EPO- producing cells

b. Decreased tissue demand for oxygen

c. An increased number of RBC’s

d. Moving to a lower altitude

31. What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

a. Kidney

b. Brain

c. Liver

d. Pancreas

32.What happens to the iron (Fe3+) that is released during the breakdown of damaged RBC’s?

a. It is used to synthesize proteins.

b. it is transported to the liver where it becomes part of bile

c. It is converted into urobiliogen and excreted in urine

d. it attaches to transferring and is transported to bone marrow for use in hemoglobin

33. What is the average normal ph of blood?

a. 8.35-8.45

b. 7.75-7.85

c. 7.35-7.45

d. 9.35-9.45

34. The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is _______.

a. Hemoglobin A

b. Hemoglobin B.

c. Hemoglobin F

d. Hemoglobin S

35. A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of _____.

a. Aplastic anemia

b. Polycythemia

c. Pernicious anemia

d. Sickle-cell anemia

36. Blood plasma is composed mostly of water and contains the protein ____ that acts as a carrier to shuttle certain molecules through the circulation, as well as acts as an important blood buffer

a. Fibrinogen

b. Gamma globulin

c. Heparin

d. Albumin

37. The percentage of erythrocytes in the total volume of a blood sample its called the _____.

a. Differential white blood cell count

b. Hematacrit

c. CBC

d. Prothrombin count

38. During red blood cell formation, the norm oblast ejects most of its organelles, the nucleus degenerates and is pinched off, allowing the cell to collapse inward forming a biconcave shaped cell called a _____.

a. Reticulocyte

b. Late erythrocyte

c. proerythrocyte

d. erythrocyte

39. An abnormal excess of erythrocytes that increases blood viscosity, causing it to sludge, or flow sluggishly is called ______.

a. Thalassemia

b. Sickle cell anemia

c. Polycythemia

d. Hemorrhagic anemia

40. The balance of the heme group of hemoglobin is split off from globin during the destruction

41. The phase of hemostasis that is triggered by direct injury in vascular smooth muscle causing constriction of the blood vessel is known as ____.

a. Platelet plug formation

b. Vascular spasm

c. Coagulation

d. Clot retraction

42. Endothelial cells of an undamaged blood vessel release nitric oxide and ____ that prevent platelets from sticking to each other.

a. Clotting factors

b. Serotonin

c. Prostaciclyn

d. Calcitonin

43. A dot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel is called a _____.

a. Thrombus

b. Serotonin

c. Prostacyclin

d. Calctomin

44. The process that removes unneeded clots when healing of the vessel wall has occurred is known as _____.

a. Clot retraction

b. Clot repair

c. Coagulation

d. Fibrinolysis

45. Which sequence is correct for the following events?

1. Fibrinogen fibrin

2. Clot retraction

3. Formation of thrombaplastin

4. Prothromblin

a. 2 1 3 4 b. 1 2 3 4 c. 1 3 2 4 d. 2 4 3 1

46.A lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the in the small intestines is called a (an) :

a. cisterna chili

b. lacteal

c. afferent lymphatic vessel

d. trabeculum

e. efferent lymphatic vessel

47. The force that drives fluid into lymphatic capillaries is :

a. osmosis

b. diffusion of both water and solutes

c. endocytosis

48. Blood is correctly classified as :

a. organ

b. tissue

c. organ system

d. intracellular fluid

e. more than one of these choices is correct

49. One of the unhealthy effects of blood doping is to:

a. increase the velocity of the blood

b. decrease the blood pressure in the arteries

c. decrease the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

d. increase the carbon dioxide carrying capacity of the blood

e. increase the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

50. Which leukocytes are derived from the myeloid line?

a. Europhiles

b. basophils and eosinophils

c. lymphocytes and monocytes

d. lymphocytes

e. Europhiles, basophils, eiosinophils, and monocytes

BONUS QUESTIONS:

51. Platelets play a key role in _______, but if they are not used they are broken down after about _______ days.

a. hemastasis, 50

b. hemostasis, 10

c. hematopoiesis, 12

d. hematapoiesis, 20

52. A malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. As a result, colloid osmotic pressure.

a. increases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space

b. increases, and so blood volume is abnormally high

c. decreases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space

d. decreases, and so blood volume is abnormally high

53. Fibrinolysis involves ________ of the fibrin framework and it involves the protein _____.

a. construction, thrombokinase

b. construction, plasma

c. construction, actinomyosin

d. destruction, plasmin

e. destruction, thrombokinase