finance economics need it done— Business Quiz

Business Quiz
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s. There are three attachments….I merely need the appropriate 
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The problem or opportunity that requires a business decision on the part of the decision maker is called a _____.

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Choose one answer.

a. management

dilemma

b. research problem

c. challenge

d. measurement approach

e. return on business investment

Question 2

Intuitive decision makers tend to base business decisions on _____.

Choose one answer.

a. business research

b. secondary data

c. primary data

d. proprietary research

e. all of the above

Question 3

Visionary decision makers tend to base business decisions on _____.

Choose one answer.

e. all of the above

a. proprietary business research

b. instinct

c. secondary data

d. past experience

Question 4

Some organizations make decisions based on past experience, instincts, or secondary data searches. These organizations are operating at the _____ tier of the hierarchy of business decision makers.

Choose one answer.

a. top

b. middle

c. base

d. pinnacle

e. information

Question 5

Business research may be considered unnecessary when _____.

Choose one answer.

a. management has insufficient resources to conduct an appropriate study

b. the risk associated with the decision at hand is low

c. the information is applicable to the critical decision

d. both a and b

e. both a and c

6

Which of the following is not a required characteristic of good research?

Choose one answer.

a. Clearly defined purpose

b. Detailed research process

c. Focused on theory

d. Thorough research design

e. Recognition of limitations

Question 7

For the limitations of a study to be revealed appropriately, the researcher should _____.

Choose one answer.

a. compare the desired procedure with the actual procedure

b. compare the desired sample with the actual sample

c. ensure that the recommendations do not exceed the scope of the study

d. address the time restraints imposed on the study

e. both a and b

Question 8

Which characteristic of good research involves distinguishing between the organization’s symptoms, its problems, the manager’s perception of the problems, and the research problem?

Choose one answer.

a. Clearly defined purpose

b. Detailed research process

c. Thorough research design

d. High ethical standards

e. Justifiable conclusions

Question 9

Which of the following is not included in the statement of the decision problem?

Choose one answer.

a. Scope

b. Limitations

c. Precise meaning of all terms

d. Desired procedures

e. Organizational symptoms

Question 10

The goal of the research design is to maximize the _____ of the results.

Choose one answer.

a. objectivity

b. subjectivity

c. profitability

d. morality

e. reportability

11

Are any of the following not a good reason for managers to be well grounded in basic research?

Choose one answer.

a. Do research for themselves.

b. Make competent decisions on whether to make or ‘buy’ research from researchers outside the firm.

c. Define their own needs and form researchable questions for the specialist.

d. Judge the logic of a research approach.

e. All are good reasons.

Question 12

Which of the following is pure rather than applied research?

Choose one answer.

a. Sleep duration, as impacting work efficiency.

b. Disruption of cognitive ability under stress.

c. The relationship between leadership traits and corporate success.

d. Work towards the discovery of a possible new element.

e. Comparing brand logos after a change.

Question 13

Direct observation of phenomena, empirically testable hypotheses, and the ability to rule out rival hypotheses are all essential tenets of the _____.

Choose one answer.

a. experiential method

b. scientific method

c. intuitive process

d. strategic management process

e. account planning philosophy

Question 14

Which form of argument presents a conclusion based on reasons or proof?

Choose one answer.

a. Induction

b. Deduction

c. Logic

d. Philosophy

e. Exposition

Question 15

_____ is a form of reasoning that draws a conclusion from one or more particular facts or pieces of evidence.

Choose one answer.

a. Induction

b. Deduction

c. Empiricism

d. Logic

e. Association

16

_____ occurs when we observe a fact and ask, “Why is this?”

Choose one answer.

a. Deduction

b. Induction

c. Exposition

d. Empiricism

e. Curiosity

Question 17

_____ is the process by which we test whether a hypothesis is capable of explaining the fact.

Choose one answer.

a. Deduction

b. Induction

c. Exposition

d. Empiricism

e. Curiosity

Question 18

Concepts are more _____, while constructs are more _____.

Choose one answer.

a. concrete, abstract

b. abstract, concrete

c. intangible, tangible

d. conceptual, factual

e. intuitive, logical

Question 19

Which term below refers to a construct that is presumed to exist, but can only be inferred from data?

Choose one answer.

a. Conceptual scheme

b. Hypothetical construct

c. Operational definition

d. Confounding variable

e. Extraneous

variable

Question 20

Which term below refers to an event, act, characteristic, trait, or attribute that can be measured and to which we assign categorical values?

Choose one answer.

a. Construct

b. Concept

c. Variable

d. Schema

e. Model

21

Jason is using the demographic variables of highest level of educational attainment (high school graduate, some college, college graduate, graduate school) and ethnicity (Asian, African-American, Caucasian, Hispanic, other) to describe survey respondents. Both are examples of _____ variables.

Choose one answer.

a. dichotomous

b. discrete

c. continuous

d. dependent

e. mediating

Question 22

Which variable listed below is the variable measured, predicted, or otherwise monitored and expected to be affected by manipulation of another variable?

Choose one answer.

a. Criterion

b. Moderator

c. Independent

d. Predictor

e. Extraneous

Question 23

An increase in hours of television viewing leads to increases in the sales of snack foods. This is an example of a_____.

Choose one answer.

a. research question

b. descriptive hypothesis

c. correlational hypothesis

d. causal hypothesis

e. dichotomous hypothesis

Question 24

Which of the following is an explanatory hypothesis?

Choose one answer.

a. Young women purchase fewer meats than women who are 35 years of age or older.

b. Sales of vegetarian foods vary by season.

c. An increase in family income leads to an increase in the percentage of income spent on housing.

d. Real estate investment trusts (REITs) experienced a record level of profitability in 2004.

e. People in the South tend to rate the President more favorably than do people in the North.

Question 25

Which of the following is not one of the conditions necessary for a hypothesis to be considered strong?

Choose one answer.

a. Adequate for its purpose

b. Addresses the presence of extraneous variables

c. Testable

d. Better than rival hypotheses

e. All of the following are necessary conditions

26

The role of a model is to _____ while a theory’s role is to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. represent, explain

b. explain, represent

c. propose, prove

d. describe, predict

e. examine, experiment

Question 27

Which type of model allows the researcher to visualize numerous variables and relationships?

Choose one answer.

a. Descriptive

b. Predictive

c. Normative

d. Correlational

e. Planning

Question 28

The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing other questions by progressively breaking down the original question into more specific ones is called the _____.

Choose one answer.

a. research question

b. management-research-question hierarchy

c. management dilemma

d. management question

e. investigative question

Question 29

Who answers measurement questions?

Choose one answer.

a. Management decision makers

b. Researchers

c. Field workers

d. Participants

e. Statisticians

Question 30

Who answers investigative questions?

Choose one answer.

a. Management decision makers

b. Researchers

c. Field workers

d. Participants

e. Statisticians

31

To satisfactorily answer a research question, researchers must first answer _____ questions.

Choose one answer.

a. management

b. investigative

c. measurement

d. dilemma

e. deductive

Question 32

The quantifiable characteristic, attribute, or outcome on which a choice decision will be made is called a _____.

Choose one answer.

a. decision theory

b. decision rule

c. ex post facto evaluation

d. decision variable

e. success probability

Question 33

Which of the following statements is false regarding the evaluation of alternatives?

Choose one answer.

a. The selection of alternatives is determined by the decision variable chosen and the decision rule used

b. Each alternative must be explicitly stated

c. A decision variable is defined by an outcome that may be measured

d. A decision rule is determined by which outcomes may be compared

e. all of the above are true

Question 34

Which of the following terms fails to capture the meaning of a research design?

Choose one answer.

a. Map

b. Blueprint

c. Manual

d. Dictionary

e. Guidebook

Question 35

A _____ is a trial collection of data to detect weaknesses in the design or instrument.

Choose one answer.

a. test market

b. census

c. sample

d. pilot test

e. sampling frame

36

All of the following are benefits of pilot tests except _____.

Choose one answer.

a. provision of proxy data for probability sampling

b. identification of measurement errors

c. detection of weaknesses in research design

d. sensitization of respondents to the purpose of the study

e. all of the above are benefits

Question 37

Information collected from participants, by observation, or from secondary sources is called _____.

Choose one answer.

a. response

b. data

c. knowledge

d. fact

e. perceptual content

Question 38

Which type of sample provides a group of participants who are most representative of the target population?

Choose one answer.

a. Census

b. Judgment

c. Probability

d. Nonprobability

e. Primary

Question 39

During the _____ stage, the analyst will look for patterns of responses to the survey questions.

Choose one answer.

a. data editing

b. data collection

c. data analysis

d. sampling

e. reporting

Question 40

Ensuring consistency among respondents, locating omissions, and reducing errors in recording are all benefits of _____.

Choose one answer.

a. data collection

b. data editing

c. sampling

d. coding

e. data analysis

41

Reducing data to a manageable size, developing summaries, and applying statistical techniques are all aspects of _____.

Choose one answer.

b. data collection

a. sampling

c. pilot testing

d. data analysis

e. data transformation

Question 42

A synopsis of the problem, findings, and recommendations are provided in the ____ section of a research report.

Choose one answer.

a. executive summary

b. abstract

c. overview

d. implementation

e. technical appendix

Question 43

A researcher who is method-bound is likely to _____.

Choose one answer.

e. all of the above

a. be responsible for data analysis

b. utilize a probability sample

c. prefer one research approach over all others

d. mine a client’s database

Question 44

Which of the following is not a common research process problem?

Choose one answer.

a. Politically motivated research

b. Database strip-mining

c. Unresearchable questions

d. Ill-defined management problems

e. Pilot testing

Question 45

Ill-defined problems are those that _____.

Choose one answer.

a. cannot be expressed completely or easily

b. cannot be answered

c. can be answered through data mining

d. cannot be addressed with secondary data

e. develop in method-bound research projects

46

Planning the research design involves decisions regarding _____.

Choose one answer.

c. measurement

e. all of the above

a. data collection mode

b. type of study

d. sampling plans

Question 47

Which of the following questions is considered when discussing the management dilemma?

Choose one answer.

a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?

b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action?

c. What is the recommended course of action?

d. What symptoms cause management concern?

e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager needs?

Question 48

Which type of management question asks “What do we want to achieve?”

Choose one answer.

a. Choice of purpose

b. Evaluation of solutions

c. Troubleshooting

d. Control

e. Concern

Question 49

The fundamental weakness in the research process is _____.

Choose one answer.

a. incorrectly defining the research question

b. identifying a flawed sampling frame

c. misdefining the target population

d. failing to identify all relevant secondary information

e. skipping the exploratory phase

Question 50

Questions that the researcher must answer to satisfactorily arrive at a conclusion about the research question are called _____ questions.

Choose one answer.

a. management

b. research

c. investigative

d. measurement

e. hypothetical

_____ are original works of research or raw data without interpretation that represent an official opinion or position.

Choose one answer.

a. Secondary

sources

b. Primary

sources

c. Statistical

sources

d. Bibliographies

e. Indexes

Question 2

Which of the following is an example of a primary source of information?

Choose one answer.

a. Census data

b. Newspaper articles

c. Encyclopedias

d. Google searches

e. Internal sales reports

Question 3

Which information source may be interpretations of a secondary source but is generally represented by indexes, bibliographies, and Internet search engines?

Choose one answer.

a. Secondary
b. Primary

c. Tertiary

d. Statistical

e. External

Question 4

When researchers consider the explicit or hidden agenda of an information source, the source’s _____ is under evaluation.

Choose one answer.

a. purpose

b. scope

c. authority

d. audience

e. format

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a good reason for using secondary data?

Choose one answer.

a. Data on the past cannot be collected today.

b. Even if the definitions of variables being studied are not the same, research can be modified according to secondary data available.

c. The time involved in primary data collection may render the study obsolete.

d. Authentic data required may already have been collected by other agencies.

One of the disadvantages of computerized searches is

Choose one answer.

a. A computer search can combine subject items in different ways than is possible using a manual search.

b. Computerized databases do not contain references to the most recent published periodicals.

c. Computers are hard for most people to use.

d. Computerized searches will find sources that contain the key words but each source may not be related to the subject of interest.

Question 7

Which of the following is the first step in an exploratory study?

Choose one answer.

a. Identifying the target population

b. Choosing a sample

c. Interviewing experts

d. Conducting a literature search

e. Writing interview questions

Question 8

An analysis of past sales data shows that the average household purchases a new vacuum cleaner approximately every seven years. The extraction of this type of information is known as _____.

Choose one answer.

a. process analysis

b. data mining

c. obtrusive measures

d. record analysis

e. trace evidence

Which of the following is a concern with data mining?

Choose one answer.

a. The database was created for a reason that may not be compatible with the management question

b. It is secondary data

c. It provides the potential for extracting meaningful information

d. It is a starting point for decision-based research

e. It offers readily-available data

Question 10

The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing other questions by progressively breaking down the original question into more specific ones is called the _____.

Choose one answer.

a. research question

b. management-research-question hierarchy

c. management dilemma

d. management question

e. investigative question

Which of the following questions is considered when discussing the management dilemma?

Choose one answer.

a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?

b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action?

c. What is the recommended course of action?

d. What symptoms cause management concern?

e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager needs?

Question 12

Which of the following questions is considered when determining investigative questions?

Choose one answer.

a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?

b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action?

c. What is the recommended course of action?

d. What symptoms cause management concern?

e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager needs?

Question 13

Which of the following questions is considered when developing measurement questions?

Choose one answer.

a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?

b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action?

c. What is the recommended course of action?

d. What symptoms cause management concern?

e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager needs?

Measurement questions are questions posed to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. managers

b. researchers

c. field workers

d. study participants

e. pollsters

Question 15

Research design strategy encompasses all of the components below except _____.

Choose one answer.

a. data collection design

b. sampling design

c. instrument development

d. data analysis

e. all of the above are part of the design strategy

The goal of a formal study is to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. discover future research tasks

b. expand understanding of a topic

c. test hypotheses

d. provide insight

e. develop hypotheses

Question 17

A causal study is one that _____.

Choose one answer.

a. attempts to capture a population’s characteristics by making inferences from a sample’s characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses

b. emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations

c. discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much

d. attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another

e. provides repeated measures over an extended period of time

Question 18

A(n) _____ study explains what happened to a measured variable after-the-fact.

Choose one answer.

a. ex post facto

b. exploratory

c. experimental

d. statistical

e. causal

Question 19

A(n) _____ study involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable.

Choose one answer.

a. ex post facto

b. exploratory

c. experimental

d. statistical

e. causal

Question 20

Which of the following is a type of monitoring study?

Choose one answer.

a. Telephone interview

b. Counting cars in a parking lot

c. Mall-intercept interview

d. E-mail survey

e. All of the above

Longitudinal studies of cohort groups _____.

Choose one answer.

a. study the same people over time

b. use panel members as participants

c. study attitudes at a single point in time

d. use different participants for each sequenced measurement

e. occur under actual environmental conditions

Question 22

Which of the following exploratory techniques is used most often in business research?

Choose one answer.

a. Proxemics

b. Empathic research

c. Focus groups

d. Street ethnography

e. Surveys

Which of the following is not an objective of exploratory research?

Choose one answer.

e. All of the above

a. Expand understanding of management dilemma

b. Gather background information

c. Identify information necessary for formulating investigative questions

d. Identify sources of measurement questions

Question 24

Discussions with those who are knowledgeable about the problem or its possible solutions are called _____.

Choose one answer.

a. brainstorming

b. experience surveys

c. focus groups

d. experiments

e. projection techniques

Question 25

A correlation refers to the _____.

Choose one answer.

a. estimates of frequency with which a characteristic appears

b. establishing of the direction of causality between two variables

c. described characteristics associated with a subject population

d. relationship by which two or more variables covary

e. estimation of the proportion of a population with certain characteristics

26

Which of the following is not a type of evidence used to test causal hypotheses?

Choose one answer.

a. Covariation between variables A and B

b. Time order of events

c. Alternative causes

d. Disposition of variable B

e. All of the above can be used to test causal hypotheses

Question 27

Research designs may be viewed as being

Choose one answer.

a. Exploratory or experimental

b. Laboratory or ex post facto

c. Cross-sectional or case

d. Descriptive

or causal

e. Longitudinal

or statistical

Question 28

The interactions between two sets of variables may reflect relationships that are

Choose one answer.

a. Symmetrical

b. Reciprocal

c. Asymmetrical

d. All of the above

The major relationships of interest to the research analyst are those which are

Choose one answer.

a. Asymmetrical

b. Exclusive

c. Independent

d. Reciprocal

e. Symmetrical

Question 30

Which type of research includes an array of interpretative techniques which seek to describe, decode, translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain phenomena?

Choose one answer.

a. Quantitative

b. Qualitative

c. Statistical
d. Descriptive

e. Causal

Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some behavior, knowledge, opinion, or attitude?

Choose one answer.

a. Quantitative

b. Qualitative

c. Exploratory

d. Cross-sectional

e. Longitudinal

Question 32

Qualitative research seeks to _____ theory while quantitative research _____ it.

Choose one answer.

a. examine, interprets

b. build, tests

c. test, understands

d. apply, builds

e. justify, applies

Question 33

Which of the following is true of quantitative research?

Choose one answer.

a. It uses a nonprobability sampling method

b. Results are generalizable

c. Data analysis is ongoing during the project

d. Sample sizes are generally small

e. It uses multiple data collection methods

Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research participants with no attempt at generating a statistically representative sample?

Choose one answer.

a. Probability

b. Nonprobability

c. Random

d. Systematic

e. Cluster

Question 35

Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, attitudes, or perceptions?

Choose one answer.

a. Random sampling

b. Purposive sampling

c. Convenience sampling

d. Snowball sampling

e. Quota sampling

Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.

Choose one answer.

a. participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes

b. participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics

c. researchers select any readily available individuals as participants

d. researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame

e. researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix of demographic characteristics

Question 37

Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful when individuals with the desired characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?

Choose one answer.

a. Random sampling

b. Purposive sampling

c. Convenience sampling

d. Snowball sampling

e. Quota sampling

Question 38

Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer profile for her client. She customizes each interview to each participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of interview format is Jane using?

Choose one answer.

a. Structured

b. Semistructured

c. Unstructured

d. Closed-ended

e. Direct interviewing

Question 39

Which of the following is true of structured interviews?

Choose one answer.

e. All of the above

a. Permits direct comparability of responses

b. Encourages variation in questions

c. Interviewer probes may bias answers

d. Responses are closed-ended

Which type of interview requires the least amount of skill and creativity on the part of the interviewer?

Choose one answer.

a. Unstructured

b. Structured

c. Semistructured

d. Exploratory

e. Briefing

Which of the following channels of communication would not be used when conducting interviews?

Choose one answer.

a. Face-to-face

b. Telephone

c. Chat room

d. Mail

e. Instant messaging

When using the _____ projective technique, participants are asked to write the dialog for a cartoon picture.

Choose one answer.

a. word association

b. picture association

c. thematic apperception test

d. empty balloons

e. laddering

Question 43

When using _____, participants are asked to relate the properties of one thing or person or brand to another.

Choose one answer.

b. picture association

d. empty balloons

e. laddering

a. imagination exercises

c. the thematic apperception test

Question 44

In a study of attitudes toward buying fake goods, participants are asked to complete this sentence: “People who buy fake Louis Vuitton handbags are…” This is an example of a(n) _____ projective technique.

Choose one answer.

a. picture association

b. empty balloons

c. sentence completion

d. imagination exercise

e. personification

Question 45

How many participants are typically in a mini-group interview?

Choose one answer.

a. 2

b. 3

c. 2 to 6

d. 6 to 10

e. Up to 20

Which statement below best reflects the general rule regarding how many group interviews should be conducted for a given research project?

Choose one answer.

a. Conduct interviews until no new insight is gained

b. Use at least 3 groups for every geographic region involved

c. Include groups of men only, women only, and men and women combined

d. The more homogeneous the groups, the more groups are needed

e. All of the above are true

Question 47

Focus groups should not be used when _____.

Choose one answer.

a. facing a high-risk decision

b. stimulating new ideas for products

c. obtaining general background about a topic

d. uncovering perceptions about a brand

e. diagnosing problems

Question 48

The objective of a(n) _____ is to obtain multiple perspectives of a single organization, situation, event, or process at a point in time or over a period of time.

Choose one answer.

a. life history

b. oral history

c. case history

d. cultural history

e. semantic map

Question 49

Which type of research is designed to address complex, practical problems using brainstorming, followed by sequential trial-and-error attempts until the desired results are achieved?

Choose one answer.

a. Case history

b. Action research

c. Causal research

d. Grounded theory

e. Ethnography

Question 50

Which term below is used to describe the combining of several qualitative methods or combining qualitative with quantitative methods?

Choose one answer.

a. Triangulation

b. Dyadic support

c. Inter-rater reliability

d. Projection

e. Component sorts

When observation employs standardized procedures, trained observers, schedules for recording, and other devices that reflect the scientific procedures of other primary data methods, it is said to be _____ observation.

Choose one answer.

a. simple

b. systematic

c. organized

d. structured

e. semistructured

Question 2

Which of the following is a condition in which observation is an appropriate method for data collection?

Choose one answer.

a. Anonymity is desired

b. Respondents are widely dispersed

c. Attitudinal information is needed

d. Natural setting is imperative

e. Extensive amount of information is needed

Question 3

Which of the following is a type of behavioral observation?

Choose one answer.

a. Nonverbal behavior

b. Linguistic behavior

c. Activity observation

d. Extralinguistic behavior

e. Spatial behavior

Question 4

The most prevalent category of observation study is _____ observation.

Choose one answer.

a. linguistic

b. extralinguistic

c. spatial

d. nonverbal

e. digital

The recording of how humans physically relate to one another is called _____ observation.

Choose one answer.

c. spatial

a. nonverbal

b. linguistic

d. mechanical/ digital

e. temporal

All of the following are advantages of observation as a data collection method except _____.

Choose one answer.

a. optimizing the naturalness of the setting

b. reducing obtrusiveness

c. avoiding participant filtering

d. quantifying data

e. securing contextual information

Which of the following is a limitation of observation as a data collection method?

Choose one answer.

a. Avoidance of participant filtering and forgetting

b. Use of a natural setting

c. Securing physical, trace evidence

d. Required time and expense

e. Ability to disguise or conceal observation equipment

Question 8

A condition called the _____ creates errors when prior observations influence perceptions of current observations.

Choose one answer.

a. observer drift

b. groupthink

c. devil’s advocate

d. halo effect

e. self-serving bias

Jane took on a second-shift as observer in the observation study of restaurant patrons. As she becomes fatigued, _____ is more likely to occur.

Choose one answer.

a. observer drift

b. groupthink

c. devil’s advocate

d. halo effect

e. self-serving bias

Question 10

What type of sampling is used to select certain behavioral acts or conditions to record that answer the investigative questions?

Choose one answer.

a. Time sampling

b. Quota sampling

c. Convenience sampling

d. Event sampling

e. Snowball sampling

Question 11

The error that occurs when participants alter their true behavior due to the presence of the observer is known as _____.

Choose one answer.

a. observer drift

b. halo effect

c. social desirability responding

d. self-serving bias

e. reactivity response

Question 12

At the close of business on Black Friday, Macy’s store employees examined product displays throughout the store looking for disrupted displays and displays that remained undisturbed. The information is used to determine what items to put on sale early in the holiday shopping season. This is an example of using _____.

Choose one answer.

a. nonverbal observation

b. physical condition analysis

c. activity analysis

d. record analysis

e. data mining

Question 13

An interesting application of _____ compared self-reported beer consumption with the amount of discarded beer containers in the trash.

Choose one answer.

d. record analysis

a. process analysis

b. data mining

c. erosion measures

e. accretion measures

Question 14

A communication approach to data collection involves _____.

Choose one answer.

a. observing behavior

b. recording trace evidence

c. surveying people

d. data mining

e. linguistic behavior analysis

Question 15

All of the following are sources of error in communication research except _____.

Choose one answer.

a. measurement

questions

b. observers

c. survey instruments

d. interviewers

e. participants

The failure to secure full participant cooperation for a study can result in _____ error.

Choose one answer.

a. measurement

b. instrumentation

c. data entry

d. sampling

e. nonresponse

Question 17

Interviewer error may be caused by _____.

Choose one answer.

a. an unwillingness to participate

b. participant faulty recall

c. the falsification of answers

d. social desirability responding

e. all of the above

Question 18

Which type of error occurs when the interviewer summarizes or interprets participant answers?

Choose one answer.

a. Measurement

b. Instrumentation

c. Data entry

d. Sampling

e. Nonresponse

Question 19

A study reported in the Journal of Management Research concluded that individuals are more motivated to respond to surveys when _____.

Choose one answer.

a. the topic is salient

b. incentives are offered

c. respondents have a strong social network

d. they can respond at work

e. they know others like themselves have already responded

Question 20

A telephone survey asks participants whether they have donated money to the Tsunami Relief Fund. This type of question is subject to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. nonresponse bias

b. acquiescence

c. social desirability bias

d. satisficing

e. sampling error

The tendency for respondents to be agreeable is called _____.

Choose one answer.

b. acquiescence

a. social desirability responding

c. elaboration likelihood

d. agreeableness

e. conscientiousness

Question 22

Which type of communication data collection is typically the lowest-cost option?

Choose one answer.

a. Self-administered

b. Telephone interview

c. Personal interview

d. Record analysis

e. Observation

Which of the following is not a reason for the growth in web-based surveys?

Choose one answer.

a. Participant perceptions of anonymity

b. Ability to use visual stimuli

c. Speed of response

d. Cost efficiencies

e. Internet penetration rates

Question 24

Sample accessibility is generally maximized by the use of _____ surveys.

Choose one answer.

a. telephone

b. mobile phone

c. mail

d. Internet

e. fax

Question 25

Which type of incentive has been shown to consistently improve response rates to surveys?

Choose one answer.

a. Free product samples

b. Money

c. Gift certificates

d. Prize draw chance

e. Receipt of post-study results

In considering the use of a Web survey for conducting polls of the general population, the greatest disadvantage of the mode is _____.

Choose one answer.

a. cost

b. time constraints

c. Internet coverage

d. dial-up modems

e. inability to use monetary incentives

Question 27

When a participant does not know the answer to a survey question, but there isn’t a “Don’t Know” response option offered, _____ will occur.

Choose one answer.

a. response bias

b. measurement error

c. sampling error

d. nonresponse bias

e. unit nonresponse

Which type of data collection mode is most appropriate for a survey requiring 45 minutes to complete?

Choose one answer.

a. Telephone

b. Computer-administered telephone

c. Mail

d. Online

e. Intercept

A _____ is a scheme for assigning numbers of symbols to represent aspects of the event being measured.

Choose one answer.

a. measurement tool

b. mapping rule

c. ruler

d. scale

e. property

Question 30

Which of the following is not an example of an object?

Choose one answer.

a. Attitude

b. Furniture

c. Dog

d. Class affiliation

e. Weight

31

Weight, height, and temperature are all types of _____.

Choose one answer.

a. objects

b. physical properties

c. psychological properties

d. constructs

e. mapping rules

Question 32

Socioeconomic class affiliation is a type of _____.

Choose one answer.

a. object

b. physical property

c. psychological property

d. social property

e. mapping rule

Question 33

Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to ordered numbers in which one number is greater than, less than, or equal to another number?

Choose one answer.

a. Classification

b. Order

c. Distance

d. Origin

e. Exclusivity

Question 34

Distance, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. the use of ordered numbers such that two is less than three but greater than one

b. the use of numbers used to group or sort responses when no order to the numbers exists

c. the use of a series of numbers in which each number is an equal distance from the next

d. the use of a series of numbers with a unique origin indicated by the number zero

e. the use of a number that is not used again

Origin, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. the use of ordered numbers such that two is less than three but greater than one

b. the use of numbers used to group or sort responses when no order to the numbers exists

c. the use of a series of numbers in which each number is an equal distance from the next

d. the use of a series of numbers with a unique origin indicated by the number zero

e. the use of a number that is not used again

Which characteristics of data are exhibited by the variable, gender?

Choose one answer.

a. Classification only

b. Classification and order

c. Classification, order, and distance

d. Classification, order, distance, and origin

e. Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

Question 37

Attendance at raceways most recent two races have hit attendance records with 60,000 present at one and 65,000 present at another. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by these attendance measures?

Choose one answer.

a. Classification only

b. Classification and order

c. Classification, order, and distance

d. Classification, order, distance, and origin

e. Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

Question 38

The New York Times Dining Section rates the restaurants it reviews using a system such that one star means good, two stars means very good, three stars means excellent, and four stars means extraordinary. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by this rating scheme?

Choose one answer.

a. Classification only

b. Classification and order

c. Classification, order, and distance

d. Classification, order, distance, and origin

e. Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

Question 39

In a survey of football fans, each respondent is asked to indicate whether they have ever attended an NFL game. This question can be categorized as a(n) _____ scale.

Choose one answer.

a. ratio

b. interval

c. ordinal

d. nominal

e. semantic differential

Question 40

_____ describes how scores cluster or scatter in a distribution.

Choose one answer.

a. Mode

b. Mean

c. Median

d. Dispersion

e. Range

The _____ is the midpoint of a distribution.

Choose one answer.

a. mode

b. median

c. mean

d. range

e. dispersion

For questions 42, 43, and 44
In the results of the most recent exam taken in the business research class, the average score was a 74.4. More students earned a 78 than any other score and half the grades were above 72 and half the grades were below 72.

Question 43

What is the mode for the business research exam scores?

Choose one answer.

a. 74.4

b. 78

c. 72

d. 50

e. Between 50 and 100

Question 44

What is the median for the business research exam scores?

Choose one answer.

a. 74.4

b. 78

c. 72

d. 50

e. Between 50 and 100

Question 45

Marks: 1

What is the arithmetic mean for the business research exam scores?

Choose one answer.

a. 74.4

b. 78

c. 72

d. 50

e. Between 50 and 100

Question 46

Marks: 1

The population of a city is an example of _____ data.

Choose one answer.

a. ratio

b. interval

c. nominal

d. ordinal

e. dispersed

Question 47

Marks: 1

Random error in measurement is the error that occurs _____.

Choose one answer.

a. erratically

b. due to bias

c. systematically

d. due to sampling

e. none of the above

Question 48

Marks: 1

Differences in respondent responses associated with where the interview took place, such as at the mall, in a home, or over the telephone are errors originating from the _____ associated with the study.

Choose one answer.

a. situational factors

b. respondent

c. interviewer

d. instrument

e. sample

Question 49

Marks: 1

_____ is the extent to which a measurement tool actually measures what we wish to measure.

Choose one answer.

a. Reliability

b. Validity

c. Practicality

d. Significance

e. Standardization

Question 50

Marks: 1

An attitude scale that correctly forecasts the outcome of a purchase decision has _____ validity.

Choose one answer.

a. discriminant

b. content

c. face

d. concurrent

e. predictive

51

Marks: 1

The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June.Which statistical technique listed below would be used to compare the results of the March survey to the results of the June survey in the U.S. News and World Report’s assessment of reliability?

Choose one answer.

a. Mean

b. Dispersion

c. Correlation

d. Regression

e. ANOVA

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