discussion question

Kant argues that someone’s intentions should play a role in determining whether the action is right or wrong. He argues that as long as you moral law with the right intention- the good will- the consequences of what you do have nothing to do whether or not your action has moral value. What are the strengths of this emphasis on intention? What are the weaknesses? Is Kant right that the consequences should not make a difference to the morality of an action? ( Notice the complete shift in grounding for right and wrong from Mill’s theory. And be sure you understand what Kant means by ‘good will’. It is very different from our common understanding of good will.) Be sure to support what you say with your reasons.