1-100 quest / 100% correct

1) Bill works in the payroll department at Cooper Metals. He is responsible for ensuring employee paychecks are accurate. Most of Cooper’s employees work irregular hours including occasional overtime, which makes his job even more challenging. When an employee believes their check is wrong, Bill is the first to hear about it. The resulting stress wears on him. What is the cause of Bill’s stress? A) Authority level B) Autonomy level C) Work pace D) Error visibility 2) Bennett is a Customer Services Manager. The right Bennett has in the work- place to give orders and expect those orders to be obeyed is known as A) command B) behavior C) authority D) teamwork 3) Which term refers to the number of employees voluntarily quitting their jobs in a given period of time? A) Tardiness B) Downsizing C) Turnover D) Absenteeism 4) The work pace involved in an employee’s job is best described as which of the following? A) The length of time needed to complete one task. B) The time required to perform a job task and the time between tasks. C) The maximum speed the fastest worker can perform a task flawlessly. D) The diversity or differences in the speed of work. 5) The work pace variety involved in an employee’s job is best described as which of the following? A) The time required to perform a job task and the time between tasks. B) The diversity or differences in the speed of work. C) The maximum speed the fastest worker can perform a task flawlessly. D) The length of time needed to complete one task. 6) The task duration involved in an employee’s job is best described as which of the following? A) The diversity or differences in the speed of work. B) The maximum speed the fastest worker can perform a task flawlessly. C) The time required to perform a job task and the time between tasks. D) The length of time needed to complete one task. 7) What is meant when we talk about accuracy in work? A) How accountable someone is for obtaining results from their work tasks. B) The fixing of close, undivided attention on a work task. C) The precision or exactness needed to complete a work task. D) How difficult the work task is to perform. 8) The amount of responsibility an employee has in their job is evident through ________. A) the precision or exactness needed by the employee when completing their job tasks B) the fixing of close, undivided attention on the employee as they perform their job C) the difficulty of the tasks the employee performs in their job D) the accountability the employee has for obtaining results in their job tasks 9) An individual who has power and the ability to make decisions about the utili- zation of the organization’s resources has which of the following? A) Responsibility B) Authority C) Autonomy D) Accountability 10) Employees who spend more time spreading gossip about others than perform- ing their jobs are known as ________. A) Lazy workers B) Squealers C) Critics D) Lone wolfs 11) When studying perceptions, the term mental set refers to which of the follow- ing statements? A) An individual’s aggregate perceptions of work. B) The individual’s perception of what they want regardless of reality. C) What an individual thinks is happening. D) The factual influences in an individual’s life. 12) Perceptual filters are those elements that describe which of the following? A) An opinion formed with no basis or fact. B) How others view our words and actions. C) Our attitudes about people and things. D) Impulses we do not consciously eliminate. 13) ________ is the act of attributing our own traits, faults, or motives onto oth- ers? A) Two-valued reasoning B) Inference C) Projection D) Halo effect 14) Chris made a snap judgment about why Charlie was late for work today. On what basis did Chris make his decision? A) He made his decision using a belief or conclusion he held with confidence but was not substantiated with any proof. B) He made his decision through an instant evaluation determined without the benefit of any fact or experience. C) He made his decision based on what everyone in the workplace agreed was true. D) He made his decision using information he knew or assumed to be true. 15) John made the assumption that because Bill is good at inventory ordering, he will automatically be good at data entry. On what basis is John making this decision? A) He is using projection. B) He is using the halo effect. C) He is a victim of the fallacy of composition. D) He is using the rusty halo effect. 16) Which of the following statements best describes the fallacy of composition? A) The ignoring or distorting of reality to hold onto assumptions. B) The assumption that when one event precedes another, the first caused the second. C) The assumption that what is true of a part is true also of the whole. D) The assumption that what is true for the whole is true for each of the parts. 17) Which of the following statements best describes the fallacy of division? A) The assumption that what is true for the whole is true for each of the parts. B) The ignoring or distorting of reality to hold onto assumptions. C) The assumption that what is true of a part is true also of the whole. D) The assumption that when one event precedes another, the first caused the second. 18) Which of the following statements best describes the fallacy of wishing it were so? A) The assumption that what is true for the whole is true for each of the parts. B) The assumption that when one event precedes another, the first caused the second. C) The ignoring or distorting of reality to hold onto assumptions. D) The assumption that what is true of a part is true also of the whole. 19) Jamison worked hard for his degree. He even had a mock diploma hanging over his desk as motivation. Graduation day was the proudest day of his life. Jamison was now pushing the employees he manages to enroll in college and get a degree. “If a degree meant so much to me,” he reasoned, “it will mean much to them, and it will motivate them.” What type of reasoning is Jamison using? A) Multivalued Reasoning B) Post Hoc, Ergo Propter Hoc C) Fallacy of Division D) Fallacy of Wishing it Were So 20) Martha is a supervisor at Cooper Corporation. Communication that flows from her office to the employees that work for her is referred to as ________. A) Lateral communication B) Downward communication C) Upward communication D) Sideway communication 21) As Deb works this morning compiling sales and expense results for her work unit, she prepares the documents in a format required by her supervisor. This type of feedback is referred to as ________. A) Lateral communication B) Upward communication C) Open-door policy D) Downward communication 22) A sender choosing the words and symbols to include in a message is begin¬ning the process of ________. A) Channeling B) Encoding C) Feedback D) Decoding 23) A receiver translating a sender’s message is beginning the process of ________. A) Channeling B) Encoding C) Decoding D) Feedback 24) Deliberately manipulating a sender’s message content to make it appear more favorable to the receiver is called ________. A) Language B) Selective perception C) Emotions D) Filtering 25) Which message channel is best for delivering the maximum amount of the sender’s message content? A) Third-party B) Face-to-face C) Face-to-group D) Phone 26) When using face-to-face communication channel, how much of your total message is contributed through gestures and other nonverbal signals? A) 7%B) 38% C) 55% D) 45% 27) Doublespeak is best defined by which statement? A) ”Friday will be your last workday. We are debloating the workforce.” B) ”We have too many employees. In other words, some people have to be fired.” C) ”It is essential that you check everything twice.” D) Don’t make me say it again.” 28) Which part of the head provides the most important and key nonverbal sym- bols? A) The mouth B) The forehead C) The eyes D) The nose 29) Snap judgments are best defined as ________. A) conclusions drawn instantly B) forming opinions C) all-inclusive words D) deliberate deception of others 30) The communication barrier that relates to an individual’s status in the organi¬zation is known as ________. A) rank B) credibility gap C) gatekeeping D) verbal cocoon 31) What do we call a person or device that controls or limits access to another person? A) Gatekeeper B) Doorkeeper C) Credibility gap keeper D) Verbal cocoon keeper 32) Amanda has been told to use open questions when she interviews job candi- dates. What should she be considering as she prepares her questions? A) Questions requiring more than just a yes or no answer. B) Questions with more than two correct answers. C) Questions with no answer. D) Questions that can be answered yes or no. 33) What is required for listening to occur? A) Hearing information B) Wanting and needing the information C) Proximity and proclivity D) Hearing and attending to the information 34) Options involved in a conflict involve which of the following? A) The alternatives that will resolve a conflict. B) The different approaches to starting a conflict. C) The alternative approaches to ending a conflict. D) The different approaches to handling a conflict. 35) In a conflict, an alternative would be ________. A) the consequences of not resolving a conflict B) the consequences of not starting a conflict C) the third party affected by the conflict D) the third party involved in the conflict 36) ”I would like to call this first meeting of union representatives and manage- ment to discuss quality issues to order,” said Senior VP Raul Chavez.”As you all should now, we must either significantly increase quality or we will lose virtually all of our current contracts.” Denise Wallace interjected, “The union has drawn up a list of actions for both union members and managementtake and I previously sent a copy to Andy Dobbins.” Dobbins, Senior Op- erations Manager, held up the list and said, “I’ve looked over the list and most of these are workable. I’ve also added a few ideas from management.” Raul looked around the table and said, “May I suggest we look over every- thing we have to date, change or make additions to that and come to a con- sensus on actions managers and union members can take?” The others nod- ded in agreement. What conflict characteristics are present here?1. feud mentality 2. everyone syndrome3. going for broke 4. me syndrome5. you syndrome 6. problem-solving mentality A) 2 and 6B) 1, 3, 4, and 5 C) 2, 4, 5, and 6 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 637) Jamal looked at Sue and said, “We have to renegotiate these rates. The price of energy has dropped dramatically and our recent school funding referendum failed. My high school cannot afford to heat the buildings properly at this rate. Energy costs are second only to teacher salaries for us. If we can’t get a better rate, the board has no choice but to close this school and send the students across the town. That will mean overcrowding for the students but it will also mean much less money for you because that building has the experimental solar and methane gas co-generation plant. If the rate can be cut in half, we would be willing to extend our agreement to buy from you be- yond the 18 months we have left to 4 years.”What is the conflict demand in this situation? A) To build a co-generation plant.B) To close the building and move the students across town. C) To extend the current agreement to four years. D) To reduce the energy rate to half the current rate. 38) Which of the following situations describes proper etiquette for using the of- fice copier?A) Your job involves making 20 copies of 8 pages on letterhead paper with 120% magnification, increased darkness, 2-sided copies from 1-sided origi- nals, collated, and stapled. When your job is done, you leave the machine with this setup just in case the next person who makes copies needs the same thing.B) Your job involves making 20 copies of 8 pages on letterhead paper with 120% magnification, increased darkness, 2-sided copies of 1-sided originals, collated, and stapled. Frank is asking you to stop your job so that he can make 15 copies of 1 page. C) You need to make 6 copies of 1 page and believe you should go before Frank who needs to make 14 copies of 31 pages. D) You are in the middle of making 80 copies of 3 pages. Frank needs to make one copy of 200 pages and has asked to interrupt your job. 39) Which of the following situations describes proper etiquette when you are the one calling a meeting? A) You invite the whole department, 27 people, to a problem-solving meeting. B) You ask for a volunteer to arrange the date, time, and location of the meeting. C) You arrive late so you are not kept waiting. D) You prepare an agenda so the group knows what will be discussed. 40) Today’s etiquette indicates that cell phones should be used in which of the following places? A) In the classroom B) In the theater C) In the restaurant D) None of the above 41) Meetings that last longer than ________ should include a scheduled break. A) 75 B) 90 C) 60 D) 45 42) Moral principles of right conduct are ________. A) morality B) responsibility C) ethics D) etiquette 43) The goodness or badness of human action or behavior is ________. A) ethics B) moralityC) responsibility D) etiquette 44) A manager who focuses on social goals as the overall goal of management would be considered to follow the ________ philosophy of social responsibility A) Profit-action B) Trustee-of-profit C) Profit-quest D) Enlightened self-interest 45) Laying off employees and reorganizing a firm is typically referred to as ________. A) downsizing B) acquisition C) implementation D) quality management 46) What are the technical skills an employee needs to complete the job duties as outlined in their job description? A) The skills needed to supervise other individuals. B) The skills needed to manage yourself. C) The skills needed to perform job tasks. D) The skills to communicate and work with others. 47) What are the interpersonal skills an employee needs to complete the job du- ties as outlined in their job description? A) The skills to communicate and work with others. B) The skills needed to supervise other individuals. C) The skills needed to perform job tasks. D) The skills needed to manage yourself. 48) The process of job design includes ________. A) Creating a list of tasks needed to be performed in order to manage a job. B) Listing the assortment of skills a person needs to perform their job. C) Planning how and when to hire employees. D) Defining and dividing tasks into jobs and describing the jobs and individuals best capable of performing them. 49) What type of organization design is focused on how knowledge is acquired and disseminated throughout a firm? A) Horizontal organization B) Learning organization C) Virtual organization D) Liberation management organization 50) Mark Majors is Vice-President of Marketing at a large consumer products company. Augusta Sinclair is a new Advertising Manager. Salvador Pina is the chief salesperson. A reorganization is in progress. In order to follow the chain of command principle, which one of these structures is NOT permis- sible? A) Mark, Augusta, and Salvador all managed by separate individuals B) Mark managing Augusta and Salvador C) Mark managing Augusta and Salvador in a separate department D) Augusta managing Mark and Salvador 51) The organizing principle that refers to a worker being responsible to one, and only one person, is called ________. A) responsibility B) authority C) formalization D) unity of command 52) Which statement best describes the premise of the positional power prin- ciple? A) Organizational strength is dependent on the grouping of human resources within an organization. B) Departments performing similar activities and jobs must be grouped together in the organization’s hierarchy. C) Power is vested in the person occupying the position, not in the position itself. D) Power is vested in the position, not in the person occupying the position.53) How are departments formed in a functional organization? A) By similar activities and jobs B) By physical location or territory C) By merchandise or service D) By client or industry served 54) Sam and Beth have formed a partnership combining Sam’s delivery fleet with Beth’s wholesale flower business. The partnership has not gone well and Beth and Sam both see themselves as being responsible for daily operations and neither is working on sales or planning. What organizational principle is being violated here and therefore explains why the problem is occurring? A) Span of control/management B) Hierarchical structure principle C) Division of labor principle D) Unity of command principle55) A company’s core competency is best described as ________. A) focusing employees on working for the organization B) doing what it does best C) outsourcing key tasks and resources D) reducing the size of the organization 56) The organizing principle that refers to the importance of a structure for providing direction and control in an organization is called ________. A) span of control B) line authority C) hierarchical structure D) chain of command 57) ________ decisions are those based on logic and reason. A) Political B) Economic C) Temporal D) Rational 58) Christian has just made a decision that is sure to boost his career, even though the decision does his company no good. What type of decision did Christian make? A) A politically rewarding decision B) A politically popular decision C) A superior’s political decision D) A personal political decision59) Daryl is afraid to make wrong decisions or to overstep his authority, so he sends his decisions up to his boss. Daryl is employing what type of decision making? A) Buck-passing decision making B) Affective decision making C) Delayed decision making D) Conflict-based decision making 60) A manager causing emotional or psychological suffering for those he or she manages would be called which type of manager? A) A spineless manager B) A workaholic manager C) A malicious manager D) A split-personality manager 61) Which descriptor best characterizes spineless managers? A) They believe people are plotting to take their power. B) They have two contrasting personalities. C) They avoid decisions in order to avoid being held accountable later. D) They accumulate and guard resources. 62) What is the definition of productivity? A) The amount of work that gets done, regardless of errors. B) The amount of goods or services created in a given time. C) The amount that revenues exceed expenses. D) The amount of income received. 63) Deb consistently argues against the consensus of other members of her group in an effort to probe for weaknesses in the group’s current position. Deb’s role in the group is that of being a ________. A) cultural advocate B) manager C) leader D) devil’s advocate 64) Which statement best describes group attractiveness? A) Behaving in a way that directly affects goal accomplishment.B) Generating interest and demonstrating value to others so they will choose to join a group. C) Causing confusion over roles in a group and their boundaries. D) Attracting others to the group through an emotional appeal. 65) What statement best describes group task activities? A) Behaving in a way that directly affects goal accomplishment.B) Causing confusion over roles in a group and their boundaries. C) Generating interest and demonstrating value to others so they will choose to join a group. D) Attracting other to the group through an emotional appeal. 66) The group members in Barney’s group are so tight they have stopped express- ing their individual opinions and considering input from others outside of the group. Which statement best describes the groupthink that has now impact- ed the behavior of the group? A) Negative results from intragroup pressures within group decision making. B) Sharing responsibility to the point that accountability is difficult to ascertain. C) Consensus that occurs within organizations. D) Division of authority and responsibility that occurs in behavioral and flat orga- nizations. 67) Which stage of group formation occurs when group members are focused on becoming acquainted with each other? A) Performing B) Conforming C) Norming D) Forming 68) Which type of team includes individuals from different functional areas? A) A matrix team B) A workforce team C) A think tank D) A cross-functional team 69) Which of the following statements best defines the purpose of integrity tests? A) Tests designed to measure an employee or job candidate’s aptitude. B) Tests designed to gauge an employee or job candidate’s honesty through questions on ethical dilemmas. C) Tests designed to measure an employee or job candidate’s ability to perform job-related tasks. D) Tests designed to analyze an employee or job candidate’s handwriting as a gauge of their honesty. 70) According to your textbook, what percent of companies indicated in a recent Human Resource Management Association survey that they had conducted some form of employee surveillance? A) 50% B) 70% C) 60% D) 40% 71) Which of the following examples might be considered controversial in terms of a company’s legitimate control over employee behavior? A) Activities carried on outside of the workplace B) Attire in the workplace C) No smoking policies D) All of the above 72) How might Rachel respond to a gossipy co-worker in her workplace? A) Tell her own gossip stories. B) Avoid them and show no interest in what they are saying. C) Totally disregard anything they say. D) Listen attentively to their stories. 73) Rhonda is making a salary that is so low she would be embarrassed to have her friends and family find out what it is. She makes enough to get by and the company offers high levels of job security, but the salary makes her have doubts about her self-worth. She has many friends on the job and she and her husband have many personal friends. According to Maslow, what needs should be used to motivate Rhonda? A) Esteem B) Safety C) Physiologic D) Belonging 74) John appears to have a strong need for approval in order to perform his job effectively. What does this indicate John is looking for? A) Sufficient ability to complete his assigned tasks. B) Feeling he has accomplished the goals set for him by management. C) Official consent or confirmation he is performing his job correctly D) Capacity to perform his assigned tasks effectively. 75) John appears to have a strong need for achievement in order to perform his job effectively. What does this indicate John is looking for? A) Official consent or confirmation he is performing his job correctly. B) Capacity to perform his assigned tasks effectively. C) Sufficient ability to complete his assigned tasks. D) Feeling he has accomplished the goals set for him by management. 76) John appears to have a strong need for competence in order to perform his job effectively. What does this indicate John is looking for? A) Sufficient ability to complete his assigned tasks. B) Capacity to perform his assigned tasks effectively. C) Feeling he has accomplished the goals set for him by management. D) Official consent or confirmation he is performing his job correctly. 77) What term does Herzberg use to define those facets of the work that actually give employees a reason to perform and grow in their work? A) Expectancy B) Equity C) Hygiene D) Motivators 78) The aspects in the workplace that work to improve an employee’s satisfaction contribute to the employee’s ________. A) quality of work life B) job feedback C) job time standards D) organizational redesign 79) ________ involves providing employees with higher degrees of involvement and greater authority to make decisions. A) Empowerment B) Task significance C) Job rotation D) Classical leadership 80) Lenny works for a racing team. During his 8-hour workday, he works for 2 hours designing performance tests, for 2 hours making engine adjustments, for 3 hours running driving tests, and for 1 hour he analyzes test results. What term describes Lenny’s work arrangement? A) Job flexplace B) Job enlargement C) Job sharing D) Job rotation 81) Which statement best describes recognition in the workplace? A) The noticeable acknowledgment of an employee’s performance. B) The level of control employees have over their work. C) The required skills employees need to perform their job. D) The freedom employees have to establish their own work goals. 82) What is an individual’s effort/reward ratio? A) Comparisons of how carefully the individual has researched, selected, and prepared for their job. B) Comparisons of the needs the individual believes their job can fulfill. C) Comparisons of how important an individual’s job is in their life. D) Comparisons of the rewards the individual receives from their work and ef- forts. 83) Jerry is not happy with a change his firm has recently implemented. Which one resistance to change method could he use that might actually have a chance of reversing the change? A) Decreased productivity B) Resignation C) Regression D) Sabotage 84) Which type of change methodology would involve changing for a limited time and then evaluating effectiveness of the change? A) Experimentation B) Trial period C) New-person method D) Participation 85) Which of the following is the first key step when implementing a large-scale change? A) Follow through B) Determine necessity C) Communicate the vision D) Clear the path 86) A group process focused on designing a change intended to improve the ef- fectiveness of the culture of an organization is known as ________. A) organizational development B) organizational design C) organizational climate D) organizational effectiveness 87) Ted was excited to begin his new job as Assistant Vice President of Sales- that is, until his first day on the job!! Turns out his employer has told him he is now responsible for telling the employees about changes in the company’s benefit programs. Which method for accomplishing change is his employer using? A) Training B) Participation C) New person D) Directives 88) Which term involves the answerability an employee has to his or her man¬ager? A) Power B) Accountability C) Responsibility D) Authority 89) Which of the following statements best defines the concept of behavioral leadership? A) Authoritarian leadership where others are simply told how to follow. B) Utilizing fear and intimidation to influence employees. C) Utilizing punishment to accomplish organizational objectives. D) Applying positive techniques in leadership. 90) The ability to think abstractly and see relationships between seemingly dispa¬rate entities or the ability to see the big picture describes a manager’s ________ skills.A) conceptual B) human resource management C) technical D) developmental 91) Leopold is the sales manager for a large car dealership. At a recent sales meeting he told the sales force to “move the metal or I’ll move you—out the door!!” What leadership style is involved in this situation? A) Participative B) Traditional C) Behavioral D) Free-rein 92) ________ flows upward, while ________ flows downward. A) Responsibility; accountability B) Authority; accountability C) Authority; responsibility D) Accountability; authority 93) Which type of distress is produced from the amount of work demanded, the time allotted to complete work, repetition, or the amount of concentration required? A) Participation distress B) Qualitative demand distress C) Work pace control distress D) Quantitative demand distress 94) Which of the following refers to the warning stage indicating an individual is nearing their stress threshold? A) Flash point B) Elastic limit C) Yield point D) Rupture point 95) What term refers to the stress reaction which results in severe and permanent mental and physical damage when the stress is not properly managed? A) Rupture pointB) Flash point C) Yield pointD) Elastic limit96) What do we call the tendency to always expect the worst? A) Idealism B) Optimism C) Pessimism D) Naiveté 97) What is it Affirmative Action programs are intended to do? A) Equalize working conditions for men and women. B) Create greater equity in employment. C) Ensure reasonable accommodations are made for disabled workers. D) Equalize pay between men and women. 98) Mark is attempting to make sure female employees in his workplace are paid as much as male employees when performing tasks in other occupations re- quiring comparable, but not necessarily identical skills, training, responsibili- ties, hazards, and effort. This process is known as ________. A) comparable worth B) affirmative action C) xenophobia D) sanctions 99) Ernest was looking forward to representing his company in China. Once he had arrived, however, he felt differently. For one, the Chinese were insulted when he wanted them to sign a contract; they thought it meant he didn’t trust them. It was much more crowded than he thought it would be, transportation within the cities was much more difficult than he was used to, and the avail- ability of the foods he enjoyed was very limited. What is Ernest experiencing? A) Xenophobia B) Provincial attitude C) Culture shock D) Codetermination 100) Which of the following would most impact differences in the workplace due to a global workforce? A) Worker productivity levels B) Worker motivational levels C) Worker skill levels D) All of the above