PSY 270,PSY 380,PSY 228

This subject is a psycology defrent from the previous, and do the eassy questions to ,you can choose one for each unit exams, i will send you format eassy questions, how you will do for graduate school format.

Thank you.

Publisher:

Pearson: Allyn & Bacon

PSY 270

Learning Theories

Text: Learning and Memory
4th Edition, 2009
ISBN: 10: 0205658628/ 13: 9780205658626
Authors:
Scott Terry
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Learning Theories
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. The central question for the field of Learning is:
(a) How do genetics influence behavior?
(b) What role does the environment play in the development of mental process-
es?
(c) How do we come to have knowledge?
(d) Why do learning disabilities develop?
2. Which of the following could be considered valid ways to measure learning?
(a) the rate at which an animal presses a bar in an experimental chamber
(b) the degree to which one’s respiration rate changes from one situation to
another
(c) the ability of an individual to recall material while completing an exam
(d) all of the above
3. Which of the following is not demonstrative of learning?
(a) possessing factual knowledge
(b) the acquisition of a new skill
(c) experiencing a surge in one’s attentional ability following the consumption of
a stimulant medication
(d) feeling more competent after training, compared to before training
4. One’s potential for learning could be demonstrated if:
(a) acquired knowledge is used after it is initially obtained
(b) acquired knowledge is used as it is obtained
(c) acquired knowledge is used before it is obtained
(d) none of the above
5. Which of the following changes in behavior are typically excluded from a
formal definition of learning?
(a) changes that are transient
(b) permanent changes in behavior
(c) changes in one’s behavioral repertoire
(d) none of the above
6. Bandura’s “BoBo doll” experiment illustrated the distinction between:
(a) physiological and affective changes in behavior
(b) potential and actual changes in behavior
(c) potential and maturational changes in behavior
(d) actual and physiological changes in behavior
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7. Changes due to maturation are excluded from the definition of learning
because:
(a) they may arise from innate forces
(b) neural
(c) they occur independent from one’s experiences
(d) all of the above
8. Which of the following is a maturation-based, as opposed to experience-
based, change in behavior?
(a) a rat’s faster pace through a maze after 10 attempts through the maze
(b) a decrease in one’s anxiety level towards horror films after viewing one horror
film per day for an entire year
(c) developing aggressive tendencies after viewing models acting in an aggressive
manner
(d) bone growth
9. Habituation can be measured by:
(a) observing whole-body startle reactions to loud tones
(b) measuring the amount of blood flowing into one’s brain
(c) measuring changes in the electrical conductivity of the skin
(d) all of the above
10. Which of the following is most likely to result in suppressed responding
during a habituation experiment?
(a) spaced presentations
(b) massed presentations
(c) savings
(d) generalization
11. Which of the following is most likely to result in durable habituation?
(a) spaced presentations
(b) massed presentations
(c) savings
(d) dishabituation
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12. After habituating his animals to a visual stimulus, Dr. Stillman presents a
novel tone to his subjects. Following the presentation of the tone, the animals
are again shown the initial visual stimulus, but they no longer habituate to
this event. What has occurred?
(a) generalization
(b) sensory adaptation
(c) savings
(d) dishabituation
13. After habituating his animals to a dark-blue circle, Dr. Stillman presents a
light-blue circle to his subjects and finds that they continue to habituate to
this novel item. What has occurred?
(a) generalization
(b) sensory adaptation
(c) savings
(d) dishabituation
14. Effector fatigue occurs when:
(a) sensory receptors lose their ability to detect changes in the environment
(b) one’s response system is depleted
(c) a subject exhibits an orienting response to a stimulus
(d) none of the above
15. Neurons directly involved in the reflex arc have been labeled:
(a) Type S
(b) Type R
(c) Type H
(d) Type A
, 6. Neurons directly involved in the reflex arc have been labeled __ , and are
closely related to the process of __ .
(a) Type S; sensitization
(b) Type S; habituation
(c) Type H; sensitization
(d) Type H; habituation
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17. Neurons that playa major role in the general level of arousal of the nervous
system have been labeled:
(a) Type S
(b) Type R
(c) Type H
(d) Type A
18. Why is a CR sometimes called an anticipatory response?
(a) because a subject anticipates that making a CR will lead to some type of
reward
(b) because a subject makes a CR during the presentation of the US
(c) because a subject makes a CR during the presentation of the CS
(d) none of the above
19. Which of the following methods of classical conditioning is focused on the
survival value of conditioned associations?
(a) eyeblink conditioning
(b) SCR measurement
(c) conditioned taste aversion
(d) all of the above
20. Dr. Williams is interested in studying classical conditioning, but she feels
that manipulating reflex-evoking USs in unethical. To work around Dr. Wil-
liams’s ethical standards, she should use:
(a) evaluative conditioning
(b) eyeblink conditioning
(c) SCR measurement
(d) none of the above
21. One possible drawback to evaluative conditioning is:
(a) the reflexes studied are difficult to observe
(b) the SCRs that are to be evaluated can be painful to subjects
(c) the traditional CRs used with the procedure are too intense
(d) none of the above
22. Questions about evaluative conditioning have addressed
(a) whether or not this process is truly classical conditioning
(b) the consciousness status of preference changes
(c) researchers should utilize verbal data during this procedure
(d) all of the above
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23. Unconditioned Stimuli:
(a) have no biological significance to an organism
(b) are neutral stimuli
(c) cannot have their significance acquired
(d) none of the above
24. Unconditioned Stimuli:
(a) can have a sensory element to them
(b) are devoid of emotional significance
(c) do not typically elicit specific reactions
(d) are unidimensional
25. Which of the following could serve as a (S?
(a) the passage of time since the most recent US
(b) a tone
(c) one’s external environment
(d) all of the above
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Written Assignment for Unit One
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page
of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to
the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1. Explain the steps and results that were revealed in Tolman and Honzick’s (1930) latent
learning experiment.
2. Describe Basic and Applied Research and the similarities and differences of each.
3. List and describe the several parametric features of habituation that have been identified.
4. Describe the various methods of studying classical conditioning.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. In the last 3 months, Mike never knows when he is going to get his allowance
from his parents. He knows that he gets paid about every week, but sometimes
his allowance comes 10 days after the previous one, sometimes only 4 days
separate his allowance, while some payments come on a regular, 7-day rota-
tion. The type of reinforcement schedule being used is a:
(a) variable interval
(b) fixed interval
(c) variable ratio
(d) fixed ratio
2. In a schedule, reinforcement occurs after a fixed number of
responses.
(a) continuous reinforcement
(b) fixed ratio
(c) variable ratio
(d) fixed interval
3. An experimenter designs their experiment so that a reinforcer is delivered
after a subject presses a bar in a Skinner box. To maximize conditioning,
which delay interval (between the response and the delivery of the reinforcer)
should be used?
(a) 1 second
(b) 2 second
(c) 4 second
(d) 8 second
4. The capacity to inhibit immediate gratification in preference for a larger re-
ward in the long run is central to:
(a) secondary reinforcement
(b) self-control
(c) continuous reinforcement
(d) token reinforcement
5. The quickest way to reduce an organism’s biological need would be to use:
(a) secondary reinforcement
(b) self-control
(c) primary reinforcement
(d) token reinforcement
6. A teacher giving a student a coupon they can exchange for a pencil, candy, or
other reward is an example of this type of reinforcement.
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(a) secondary and primary reinforcement
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(b) self-control and token reinforcement
(c) primary and token reinforcement
(d) secondary and token reinforcement
7. After getting a good grade on an exam, Julie’s mom gives Julie a big hug. The
behavior of Julie’s mom in this situation could best be described as:
(a) secondary reinforcement
(b) social reinforcement
(c) primary reinforcement
(d) token reinforcement
8. Sales associates’ attempts to help customers are sometimes rewarded with
sales. Though which customer will buy may be unpredictable, more attempts
should produce more sales. Such a schedule would illustrate _
reinforcement:
(a) variable interval
(b) variable ratio
(c) fixed ratio
(d) fixed interval
9. A reinforcer:
(a) only has its reinforcing qualities in its originally-used context
(b) does not always lead to satisfaction
(c) decreases the frequency of the operant response
(d) possesses transsituationality
10. Which of the following could occur within a participant during punishment
training?
(a) aggression
(b) conditioned fear
(c) avoidance of the situation
(d) all of the above
11. Dr. Smith is trying to teach Billy to WANT to do his homework, because of
the personal satisfaction that homework completion will bring to Billy. Dr.
Smith is essentially trying to enhance Billy’s:
(a) extrinsic motivation
(b) intrinsic motivation
(c) latent learning
(d) biofeedback ability
12. A reward can interfere with a punisher when: (page 138)
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(a) reward and punishment fail to arouse approach-avoidance conflict
(b) the punishment is not consistent
(c) the punishing event becomes a secondary positive reinforcer
(d) none of the above- rewards never interfere with punishment
13. After Susie runs away from her mother and into the street, she is almost hit
by a passing car. Following this event, Susie’s mother punishes her for her
behavior. Research shows that:
(a) Susie might continue to misbehave, in an even worse manner
(b) the punishment might have no effect on Susie
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
14. Self-Injurious Behavior tends to be treated with:
(a) reinforcement
(b) punishment
(c) aversion therapy
(d) learned helplessness
15. Skinner’s stance of the use of punishment in treating Self-Injurious Behavior
(SIB) was that:
(a) it should not be done because it is immoral
(b) it should not be done because it only reinforces the punisher
(c) it should be done if it is brief, harmless, and contingent on SIB
(d) it should be done in an intense and painful way, in order to be effective in
eliminating the SIB
16. Whenever Billy cries at the supermarket, his mom and dad buy him a candy
bar, and find that with each trip to the store, Billy cries more and more. What
is happening?
(a) Billy’s responses are generalizing
(b) negative reinforcement- Billy has learned that when he cries at the store, he
gets a candy bar
(c) masochistic behavior
(d) none of the above- there is no relation between the candy bar and Billy’s
behavior
17. Ernie’s car has an automatic transmission with the gear shift behind the
steering wheel. Earlier today, however, he drove his mom’s car, which has its
automatic transmission gear shift on the floor of the car. As he tried to drive
his mom’s car out of her driveway, he reached for the gear shift behind the
steering wheel, although it wasn’t there. Ernie’s behavior in this situation is
illustrative of:
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(a) retroactive interference
(b) proactive interference
(c) anchoring
(d) none of the above
18. As a result of taking this test today, you are having a difficult time recalling
the material you studied yesterday, for a test in tomorrow’s calculus class.
The memory deficit described here illustrates:
(a) retroactive interference
(b) proactive interference
(c) anchoring
(d) remote associations
19. Response learning can be enhanced by:
(a) using meaningful response items
(b) using nonmeaningful response items
(c) the experimenter being vague
(d) responses having few associations
20. Which of the following can influence the degree to which items in a paired-
associate learning task become connected to one another?
(a) prior knowledge
(b) preexisting associations
Ic) cognitive elaboration
(d) all of the above
21. Dr. Smith gives his experimental subjects the words BOY and SKY to learn in
a paired associate task. After presenting subjects with these two words,
subjects must generate a sentence that uses both of the words. Dr. Smith’s
methodology is studying the effect of which of the following processes on
paired-associate learning?
(a) free recall
(b) cognitive elaboration
(c) memorization
(d) direction of associations
22. When presented with the stimulus word “BASKET” and asked for a response,
Jody replies “BALL:’This response is typical of research looking into which
aspect of paired associate learning?
(a) S-R mapping
(b) cognitive elaboration
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23. Enhanced recall for information presented in an earlier (as opposed to later)
portion of a word list is referred to as:
(a) the recency effect
(b) the primacy effect
(c) anchoring
(d) paired-associate learning
24. The existence of long-term memory can be said to be supported by the occur-
rence of:
(a) the recency effect
(b) the primacy effect
(c) anchoring
(d) paired-associate learning
25. The idea that words from the same semantic category can be recalled togeth-
er even if they were not presented as part of the same list is the core idea
underlying:
(a) categorical clustering
(b) subjective organization
(c) associative clustering
(d) matrix recall
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Written Assignment for Unit Two
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page
of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assiqnrnents, However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words.Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to
the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1. At the start of the 20th century, Edward Lee Thorndike was one of the first researchers to
investigate instrumental learning. Explain the research he conducted.
2. Describe the major criticism of the use of reinforcement in learning.
3. Describe the major components of avoidance learning and the theories that offer an
explanation of it.
4. Describe the work and research done by scientist Herman Ebbinghaus.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. You are asked “Who was the first president of the United States?”To answer
this question, you would most likely have to retrieve information from:
(a) short-term memory
(b) semantic memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) procedural memory
2. You are asked “Where were you on 9/1 1 ?” To answer this question, you
would most likely have to retrieve information from:
(a) short-term memory
(b) semantic memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) procedural memory
3. The finding that certain amnesiacs have impaired episodic LTM but preserved
semantic LTM (or vice-versa) suggests that:
(a) LTM is always damaged in amnesia
(b) STM is always damaged in amnesia
(c) episodic and semantic LTM are distinct from one another
(d) doctors don’t really understand the disease
4. This anomalous forgetting phenomenon describes when a person thinks they
have come up with an original idea, only to realize later it was suggested by
someone else.
(a) cryptomnesia
(b) deja vu
(c) fugue reaction
(d) none of the above
5. Which of the following is NOT known to produce memory loss?
(a) electroconvulsive therapy
(b) an unusual word appearing in the middle of a list of other words
(c) the inducing of frustration in infants
(d) none of the above
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6. The answer to which of the following questions would most likely involve acti-
vation of the mechanism(s) behind implicit memory?
(a) “When did you graduate from high school?”
(b) “When is your birthday?”
(c) “How do you drive a stick shift vehicle?”
(d) “Where were you on 9/11?”
7. Implicit Memory: Explicit Memory as Unconscious:
(a) Inactive
(b) Indirect
(c) Conscious
(d) Retention
8. A test that makes direct reference to a prior episode is most likely assessing:
(a) incidental memory
(b) implicit memory
(c) working memory
(d) explicit memory
9. Mary’s knowledge of how to drive a car is most likely originating from her:
(a) explicit memory
(b) procedural memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) semantic memory
10. Which of the following features has been identified as being a critical charac-
teristic of STM?
(a) unlimited capacity
(b) lack of potential for forgetting
(c) stores items verbally
(d) acoustic encoding
11. According to the word-length-effect, which of the following words has the
best chance of being recalled correctly?
(a) INCARCERATION
(b) THOUGHTFULNESS
(c) TIRE
(d) MOUNTAINS
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12. The ability to recall, in order of presentation, which of the following number
of items from a sequence of items, as indicative of a normal adult memory
span:
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 2
13. The suffix effect tends to:
(a) enhance recall of recently-presented information
(b) enhance recall of information presented 24 hours or more prior to recall
(c) diminish recall of recently-presented information
(d) diminish recall of information presented 24 hours or more prior to recall
14. The impairment in patient K.F. suggests that:
(a) one needs STM to get information into LTM
(b) STM is not necessary for the transfer of information into LTM
(c) LTM has a limited capacity
(d) STM actually has an unlimited capacity
15. Which is NOT listed in your text (Box 8.2) as a condition which can cause
memory loss?
(a) Lyme disease
(b) toxic poisoning from bad shellfish
(c) alcohol poisoning
(d) all of the above can cause memory loss
16. Emotional events are highly recallable because:
(a) they tend to be non-distinctive, inhibiting interference from external factors
(b) they allow our attention to wander
(c) they involve unconscious, but not conscious, memory processes
(d) the bodily arousal occurring with emotions enhances memory formation
17. According to McCarthy and Warrington (1990) which of the following is NOT
a purpose of short term memory?
(a) familiarity
(b) problem solving
(c) language comprehension
(d) gateway to long-term memory
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, 8. High amounts of domain-specific knowledge can lead to the development of:
(a) novice ability
(b) expert ability
(c) implicit memory
(d) procedural memory
, 9. The testing effect produces the effect it does because:
(a) testing is less challenging than continued studying
(b) transfer-appropriate processing mechanisms are engaged
(c) testing is not connected to studying
(d) none of the above
20. Of all of the lectures in his Introductory Economics class, Tom remembers
the class about global economics best because the teacher wore all of his
clothes backwards and inside-out. The teachers was seemingly trying to en-
courage:
(a) maintenance rehearsal
(b) the recency effect
(c) the formation of an implicit memory
(d) the von Restorff effect
21. One reason why textbooks place critical terms in bold-face is due to the
premises of:
(a) maintenance rehearsal
(b) the recency effect
(c) the formation of an implicit memory
(d) the von Restorff effect
22. The enhanced recall of distinctive items, and the impaired recall of informa-
tion presented just prior to the distinctive stimuli, is referred to as:
(a) the anterograde amnesic effect
(b) the retrograde amnesic effect
(c) the von Restorff effect
(d) the recency effect
23. The occurrence of distinctive stimuli impairing the recall of information pre-
sented after the distinctive items is referred to as:
(a) the anterograde amnesic effect
(b) the retrograde amnesic effect
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(c) the von Restorff effect
(d) the recency effect
24. At the beginning of yesterday’s sociology class, Dr. Smith showed highly
suggestive pictures of men and women to illustrate the different forms
that pornography can take. After this 5-minute slide show, Dr. Smith gave a
45-minute lecture of pornography and modern society. However, immediately
after the class ended, the students had no memory of the lecture– all they
could recall were the sexually explicit photographs shown at the start of class.
This impaired memory is illustrative of:
(a) the anterograde amnesic effect
(b) the retrograde amnesic effect
(c) the von Restorff effect
(d) the recency effect
25. The spacing effect suggests that:
(a) massed practice is better than distributed practice
(b) distributed practice is better than massed practice
(c) massed and distributed practice are equal in their utility
(d) none of the above
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Written Assignment for Unit Three
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page
of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to
the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1. List and explain the different classifications of Amnesias.
2. Describe the early studies of short term and long term memory. What was found in these
studies?
3. Explain the importance of the Brown-Peterson task and the steps involved in it.
4. Describe and list the major components of schemas.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. If a typical person is told to/Name a type of mammalr which of the follow-
ing responses would be LEAST likely to be named?
(a) dog
(b) cat
(c) whale
(d) horse
2. When retrieving the concept CAR, the concept SPEEDING TICKET is also
retrieved. What is the name of the concept that most directly explains why
these two ideas are recalled together?
(a) priming
(b) prosopagnosia
(c) association/ spreading of activation
(d) procedural memory
3. Adam is trying to remember information for his psychology exam, but similar
information that he studied in sociology is also being retrieved, interfering
with his thinking process. This interference is most similar to:
(a) priming
(b) the fan effect
(c) spreading of activation
(d) procedural memory
4. Ever since his car accident, Joe has difficulty remembering what his friends
do for a living, although he can remember their names. This dysfunction is
evidence for:
(a) the modularity of episodic memory
(b) the modularity of semantic memory
(c) the formation of an implicit memory
(d) the validity of spreading of activation
5. An early, but ultimately incorrect, approach to understanding the biology of
memory was:
(a) the modularity approach
(b) long-term potentiation
(c) the formation of memory molecules
(d) all of the above
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6. Remembering that improves over successive attempts at reproduction of the
studied material is:
(a) hypermnesia
(b) encoding specificity
(c) distinctiveness
(d) none of the above
7. Motor skill learning has qualities that make it illustrative of:
(a) procedural learning
(b) declarative memory
(c) neither a or b
(d) both a and b
8. As Melanie sits in class paying attention to the new material being presented
by her professor, this information, in its unconsolidated state, is likely being
processed in which storage system?
(a) sensory memory
(b) short-term memory
(c) long-term memory
(d) implicit memory
9. One study on remembering knowledge learned in school assessed learning 4
and 11 months after completion of a course. Grades fell about on
the delayed tests.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) none of the above
, O. After practicing all summer long, Madison has finally learned how to make a
baseball curve when she throws it. This ability can best be described as:
(a) implicit learning
(b) spatial learning
(c) stimulus-response learning
(d) motor skill learning
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11. Tommy has been running the 1-mile race for his track team for the past 5
years. His best times in each of the past 5 years, respectively, have been
5:30,5:02,4:40,4:30, and 4:25. Assuming his training proceeds accord-
ing to plan, which of the following times should he be capable of running
this year, according to the power law?
(a) 3:59
(b) 4:02
(c) 4:23
(d) 4:10
12. The power law focuses on the relationship between motor skills learning and:
(a) practice
(b) feedback
(c) motivation
(d) strength
13. Louie spent 4 hours yesterday afternoon learning how to ride a new ail-ter-
rain vehicle, and had his competence tested over an obstacle course. He
completed the course, but made 7 driving errors while on the course. After
getting a good night’s rest (and without additional driving practice), Louie
returned to the course today and completed it with only 2 errors. This skill
improvement is best referred to as:
(a) implicit learning
(b) practice independent learning
(c) practice dependent learning
(d) massed practice
14. Janet is learning how to type, in the context of a single-session lab-based
psychology experiment. To maximize typing performance in this context, the
best type of feedback should be delivered how soon after each typing trial?
(a) 1 minute
(b) 1 hour
(c) immediately
(d) 10 minutes.
15. The self-guidance hypothesis suggests that:
(a) frequent feedback is the best way to improve motor skills
(b) delayed feedback allows one to learn how to correct their own errors
(c) delayed feedback inhibits motor skill learning
(d) people can guide themselves when learning a motor skill-feedback is not
necessary
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16. Which individual is likely to show the best classical conditioning ability?
(a) a 27-yearold
(b) a 7-year-old
(c) a z-year-old
(d) a 72-year-old
17. Prenatal classical conditioning involves:
(a) exposing a child to a CS and US immediately after birth
(b) testing for a conditioned response at 1 month, and then 1 year, after birth
(c) exposing a fetus to CS-US pairings
(d) none of the above
18. Identical twins tend to show similar memory ability on tasks involving:
(a) short-term memory
(b) digit span
(c) sensory memory
(d) associative memory
19. Episodic memories can be assessed during infancy by using:
(a) classical conditioning
(b) habituation
(c) dishabituation
(d) none of the above
20. Childhood amnesia may be the result of:
(a) prenatal exposure to alcohol
(b) enhanced hippocampal activity during the first year of life
(c) well-formed meta memory skills
(d) diminished memory capacity during infancy, compared to adulthood
21. Very young children tend to rely on data to encode information,
whereas older children and adults utilize data during encoding.
(a) sensory; motor
(b) sensory; verbal
(c) verbal; motor
(d) motor; sensory
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22. Cindy, a 6-year-old, is presented with several random strings of letters to
commit to memory. Which of the following strings is she most likely to re-
member in the correct order?
(a) RQY
(b) BHFZP
(c) MPLSTGX
(d) WYZDHLPMT
23. Developmental disabilities may be caused by:
(a) birth defects
(b) head injury
(c) malnutrition
(d) all of the above
24. In a l-roorn schoolhouse with students of all ages, Mr. Smith notices that
some of his students are taking notes about what is being discussed in class,
whereas others are not. Which of the following students would be most likely
to be one of the students taking notes?
(a) Joe, a 5-year-old boy
(b) Jen, a 6-year-old girl
(c) Victor, a s-year-old boy
(d) Rhonda, a 12-year-old girl
25. Dr. Marie has a 23-year-old female patient that is having problems with her
spatial memory. Giving this patient an estrogen supplement to boost her
memory will likely have what effect on her memory dysfunction?
(a) it will eliminate it
(b) it will make it worse
(c) it will have no long term impact
(d) it will make her smarter
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Written Assignment for Unit Four
• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page
of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words.Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to
the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1. Describe the several factors that playa role in episodic retrieval.
2. Describe several general factors that are critical to understand when studying spatial memory.
3. Describe the differences in cognitive abilities between men and women.
4. The different manners in which individuals approach the acquisition of knowledge are referred
to as learning styles, and some research has suggested that understanding different learning
styles may help to maximize individuals’ learning experiences. Describe some examples of
different learning styles.
139

Publisher:

Prentice Hall, Upper Saddle River, NJ 07458

PSY380

PERSONALITY TH EORI ES

Text: Theories of Personality: Understanding Persons
5th Edition, 2008
ISBN: 0-13-243409-1 /978-0-13-243409-6
Authors:
Susan C. Cloninger
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) Personality theories are tested using the method.
A) scientific
B) intuitive
C) clinical
D) idiographic
2) Which of the following illustrates a theoretical proposition?
A) Aggression includes verbal behavior (e.g., insulting someone) as well as physi-
cal behavior (e.g., hitting someone).
B) Frustration can be produced by a malfunctioning soda machine.
C) Frustration is a subjective experience.
D) Frustration leads to aggression.
3) Theoretical constructs which are defined too vaguely lack
A) heuristic value.
B) precision.
C) parsimony.
D) verifiability.
4) A researcher decides to see how consistent a new personality test is by com-
puting two scores. One score is the total of the odd-numbered items. The other
score is the total of the even-numbered items. What is the researcher assess-
ing?
A) test-retest reliability
B) validity
C) split-half reliability
D) alternate forms reliability
5) Which approach to reliability can be used if subjects are tested on only one
occasion, using only one test?
A) alternate forms reliability
B) test-retest reliability
C) split half reliability
D) No reliability tests are possible with only one testing session.
6) Direct self-report measures of personality
A) are seldom used.
B) are valid even when subjects intentionally give false responses.
C) always measure several personality traits simultaneously.
D) are often reliable.
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7) A researcher is interested in testing the proposition that being in a good mood
causes increased cooperation among children at school. This can be tested by
conducting an experiment in which the dependent variable is
A) mood.
B) cooperation.
C) being in school.
D) age.
8) Psychobiography is different from case studies because psychobiography has
more emphasis on
A) pathology.
B) experimental methods.
C) the individual.
D) theoretical considerations.
9) The dependent variable corresponds to what a researcher thinks is the
A) cause.
B) third variable.
C) uncontrollable factor.
D) effect.
10) Freud’s theory challenged our trust in
A) hypnosis.
B) science.
C) therapy.
D) conscious experience.
11) A”Freudian slip”is caused by
A) unconscious wishes.
B) catharsis.
C) childhood trauma.
D) dreams.
12) Which kind of person is most likely to deal with impulses through sublima-
tion?
A) a creative artist
B) a child
C) a neurotic
D) a psychotic
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13) Optimism, passivity, and dependency are characteristic of the
A) oral character.
B) latent character.
C) phallic character.
D) anal character.
14) Before he abandoned the seduction hypothesis, Freud believed that psychiat-
ric maladjustment in his female patients was caused by
A) seduction of children by strangers.
B) excessive talk about adult sexuality in the presence of children.
C) fear of sexual temptations.
D) incest between daughters and their fathers.
15) Most experts agree that recovered memories of sexual abuse are
A) accurate for female victims but not for male victims.
B) inaccurate in many cases.
C) accurate for male victims but not for female victims.
D) almost always accurate.
16) The archetypes that are closest to consciousness are
A) the Hero and the Trickster.
B) the Great Mother and the Spiritual Father.
C) the Shadow and the Anima (or Animus).
D) the Mandala and the Self.
17) Jung understood religious symbolism in terms of
A) the persona.
B) the diffusion hypothesis.
C) the personal unconscious.
D) the collective unconscious.
18) Jung dreamt of “looking up at” a patient whom he had been viewing with little
respect. This dream was interpreted (in the text) according to the principle of
A) amplification.
B) individuation.
C) compensation.
D) synchronicity.
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19) People whose psychic energy tends to “flow outward’toward external reality
are types.
A) intuitive
B) extraverted
e) sensation
0) feeling
20) Jungian psychological types have been found to influence people’s behavior in
A) eyewitness testimony.
B) business.
e) education.
0) all of the above
21) In his explanation of the concept of organ inferiority, Adler emphasized
A) determinism.
B) the subjective experience of the child.
e) the inheritance of personality.
0) the impact of physical limitations on the development of intelligence.
22) The unknown part of a person’s fictionally final goal is
A) irrelevant to psychological functioning.
B) the unconscious.
e) likely to cause emotional problems.
D) repressed because of painful childhood experiences.
23) According to Adler, the most important determinant of personality is
A) parental behavior.
B) birth order.
e) biological factors.
0) a person’s own choices.
24) What do Adlerians offer parents?
A) the threat of lawsuits
B) legal options
e) sympathy
0) training programs
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25) Adler’s major criterion for psychological health is
A) high achievement in school.
B) the absence of anxiety.
C) social interest.
D) creativity.
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Written Assignment for Unit One
Be sure to refer to the course syllabus for instructions on format, length,
and other information on how to complete this assignment.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of psychobiography as an approach to
understanding personality.
2) How was Jung’s understanding of the unconscious different from that of
Freud?
3) Describe a mentally healthy personality, according to Adler.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
t) Erikson’s basic principle for understanding development was the _
principle.
A) compensatory
B) epigenetic
C) conflict
D) self-actualization
2) According to Erikson’s epigenetic principle,
A) some people are more gifted, genetically, than others.
B) people get what they deserve out of life.
C) males and females are different because of their biology.
D) development proceeds according to a biologically-based plan, with sequential
development of parts.
3) According to Erikson’s theory, the sense of is particularly likely to
interfere with an individual’s initiative.
A) mistrust
B) shame
C) guilt
D) despair
4) In Erikson’s third psychosocial stage, the child acts in a(n) mode.
A) intrusive
B) incorporative
C) incompetent
0) selfish
5) Culture’s “ideal prototypes” support the ego strength of
A) initiative.
B) identity.
C) fidelity.
0) autonomy.
6) Individual rituals that are defensive, such as obsessive hand-washing, are
called by Erikson.
A) ritualisms
B) ideal prototypes
C) compulsions
0) moratoria
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7) Erikson described girls as more concerned with than boys.
A) aggression
B) conflict
C) inner space
0) building
8) According to Horney, the two most important emotions in infancy which help
understand later development are
A) fear and love.
B) hope and trust.
C) anxiety and hostility.
0) depression and joy.
9) In Horney’s view, a neurotic person is alienated from the self.
A) real
B) actual
C) idealized
0) physical
10) Horney described some people as over-valuing the idealized self. The term for
this is “the tyranny of the ”
A) shoulds
B) conscience
C) idealized self
0) neurotic ideal
11) According to Horney, differences between men and women are
A) primarily due to biological causes.
B) not very great, when we really get to know people.
C) primarily due to lack of communication.
0) primarily due to cultural forces.
12) Research with parents and children, using Ainsworth’s strategy of observing
infants in the presence of a stranger,
A) shows that all infants are frightened of strangers.
B) shows that infants raised by neurotic parents prefer a stranger to their biologi-
cal mothers.
C) disconfirms Horney’s theory.
0) is consistent with Horney’s theory.
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13) Which interpersonal orientation(s) does a healthy person use, according to
Horney?
A) moving toward, against, and away
B) moving against, but not toward or away
C) moving away, but not toward or against
0) moving toward, but not against or away
14) Allport defined personality as “the within the individual of those
psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments to the environ-
ment:’
A) development
B) dynamic organization
C) existence
0) nurturance
15) Which of the following is not a value measured by the Allport-Vernon-Lindzey
Study of Values?
A) Academic
B) Aesthetic
C) Religious
0) Theoretical
16) Which way of describing George best illustrates Allport’s concept of central
traits?
A) George is not like anyone else I know.
B) George is a typical Englishman.
C) George is like a lamb; he is very meek.
0) George is intelligent, ambitious, deceptive, good-looking, friendly, athletic,
and selfish.
17) Secondary traits describe ways in which
A) people try to get their own way in competitive settings.
B) people are inferior to others.
C) personality can be measured by questionnaire.
0) people are consistent, but in ways that affect few behaviors.
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18) According to psychoanalysis, people are motivated by experiences in their
past. Which concept from Allport contrasts with this view?
A) central traits
B) habits
C) extrinsic orientation
D) functional autonomy
19) Cattell classified projective tests, such as the Rorschach inkblot test, as
A) Q-data.
B) L-data.
C) T-data.
D) D-data.
20) The Culture Fair Intelligence Test is designed to measure
A) the impact of culture on intelligence.
B) race differences in intelligence.
C) fluid intelligence.
D) crystallized intelligence.
21) Constitutional, dynamic source traits such as anger, curiosity, and fear are
called
A) sentiments.
B) metaergs.
C) ergs.
D) attitudes.
22) The Big Five model
A) offers a therapy approach.
B) explains personality.
C) describes personality.
D) all of the above
23) The best way to raise a child who has an inhibited temperament, in order to
produce a well-adapted personality, is to
A) encourage the child to explore the environment and give warnings when ap-
propriate.
B) provide strict discipline.
C) continue setting high standards for the child to achieve.
D) do not interfere with the child’s innate tendencies.
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24) The term that refers to a person’s inherited genetic profile is
A) genotype.
B) temperament.
C) genome.
0) phenotype.
25) The fundamental assumption of evolutionary approaches is that
A) genetic variations that enhance reproductive success will become more fre-
quent over generations as a result of natural selection.
B) males are superior to females.
C) experience does not influence personality.
0) biology influences physical but not behavioral characteristics.
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Written Assignment for Unit Two
Be sure to refer to this course syllabus for instructions on format,
length, and other information on how to complete this assignment.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1) Select one of Erikson’s first four stages of development. What crisis occurs
at that stage? What ego strength develops? How does culture support that ego
strength?
2) Explain what Horney meant by”womb envy:’
3) What did Allport believe about the consistency of personality?
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) An important variable that Skinner studied was
A) love.
B) the rate of responding.
C) physiological responses.
D) social attitudes.
2) Skinner invented a device for studying learning. What was it called?
A) the lever
B) the Skinner box
C) the paired associate device
D) the memory drum
3) Punishment
A) influences only the behavior that is punished.
B) reduces the frequency of behavior.
C) was recommended by Skinner as a means of controlling behavior.
D) all of the above
4) Instead of spanking a child for using obscene language, Skinner would recom-
mend
A) reasoning with the child about appropriate behavior.
B) using even worse language, so the child can hear how terrible it sounds.
C) reinforcing the child for using desirable language.
D) washing the child’s mouth out with soap.
5) Matthew has learned to tease his little sister, Jane. When he first meets his
cousin, Sarah, he teases her, too. What learning concept best explains this
teasing of Sarah?
A) negative reinforcement
B) generalization
C) ratio schedule reinforcement
D) discrimination
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6) Every response is reinforced in a schedule.
A) partial
B) continuous
C) ratio
D) interval
7) Which schedule is known for producing “scalloped” records of responses, in
which periods of slow responding alternate with period of rapid responding?
A) variable interval schedules
B) variable ratio schedules
C) fixed interval schedules
D) fixed ratio schedules
8) Staats advanced behavioral theory by
A) translating personality concepts into behavioral language.
B) showing the difference between positive reinforcement and negative reinforce-
ment.
C) developing a more advanced Skinner box.
D) being the first behaviorist to study humans.
9) According to Staats, stimuli that elicit emotional responses
A) can be effective for punishment, but not for positive reinforcement.
B) function as reinforcers for new learning.
C) are not suitable to use as reinforcers for children.
D) all of the above
10) Miller and Dollard suggested that “in order to learn, one must -‘ no-
tice something, do something, and get something:’
A) want something
B) see something
C) avoid something
D) have something
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11) Which of the following best defines a cue in the sense that Dollard and Miller
used the term?
A) a vague idea about what is desired
B) the reward for a behavior
C) distinctive stimuli that a person notices at the time of behavior
D) an ordered list of possible responses
12) Which of the following can be a reward, in Dollard and Miller’s theory?
A) approval
B) money
C) food
D) all of the above
13) In the third stage of child development, according to Dollard and Miller, a
child is often punished for
A) wetting the bed.
B) poor eating habits.
C) masturbation.
D) messiness.
14) Anxiety is most likely to be experienced in an approach-avoidance conflict if
A) the avoidance gradient is always higher than the approach gradient.
B) the approach gradient crosses the avoidance gradient, and the person is very
far from the goal.
C) the approach gradient crosses the avoidance gradient, and the person is at the
point where the two gradients cross.
D) the approach gradient is always higher than the avoidance gradient.
15) There are two ways Jane can get to school. If she walks, unfriendly dogs will
bark at her. If she rides the bus, the school bully will pull her braids. What
kind of conflict is she experiencing?
A) avoidance-avoidance conflict
B) double approach-avoidance conflict
C) approach-avoidance conflict
D) approach-approach conflict
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16) Despite numerous physical difficulties, artist Frida Kahlo believed she could
be successful in her work. This is called
A) cognitive bias
B) self-efficacy
C) collective efficacy
D) id inflation
17) According to Mischel, traits behavior.
A) predict
B) cause
C) contradict
D) describe
18) “If Jerry is shouting now, he may soon hit sorneone.This is an example of a
A) stimulus-outcome expectancy
B) prototype
C) self-efficacy expectancy
D) behavior-outcome expectancy
19) Self-efficacy has been found to help treatment programs for
A) weight loss.
B) phobias.
C) AIDS prevention.
D) all of the above
20)A person high in self-efficacy
A) is high in overall intelligence.
B) believes he or she can act effectively in a situation.
C) is healthy.
D) is popular.
21) Kelly proposed a metaphor of man as
A) creator.
B) scientist.
C) zookeeper.
D) architect.
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22) The range of convenience of a construct describes
A) the extent to which the construct is adaptive in a person’s life.
B) the age at which the construct was formed.
C) the likelihood that the construct will change.
D) the events to which the construct applies.
23) One sign of good mental health is
A) having many concrete constructs.
B) slot movement.
C) having dichotomous constructs.
D) cognitive complexity.
24) Compared to threat, fear is concerned with constructs.
A) incidental
B) interpersonal
C) comprehensive
D) physical
25) Linda tends to think about alternatives for too long, without making a choice
about how to act in a situation. She should work on the stage of the
C -P-C cycle.
A) first
B) third
C) second
D) none of the above
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Personal Theories
Written Assignment for Unit Three
Be sure to refer to this course syllabus for instructions on format,
length, and other information on how to complete this assignment.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1) Explain Skinner’s objection to mentalistic ideas such as “intention:’
2) How does psychological behaviorism explain adjustment and maladjustment?
3) Explain Dollard and Miller’s concept of an approach-avoidance conflict. Give a
hypothetical example.
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Personal Theories
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) Rogers regarded the fundamental motivation to be
A) sexual needs.
B) interpersonal needs.
C) the actualizing tendency.
0) the need for security.
2) Rogers described a force for growth in all of nature. He called this the
A) formative tendency
B) anti-entropy tendency
C) self-actualizing tendency
0) actualizing tendency
3) Which of the following was not one of the characteristics of a fully functioning
person listed by Rogers?
A) existential living
B) openness to experience
C) creativity
0) social interest
4) Unconditional positive regard means loving someone _
A) regard less of that person’s behavior
B) because you yourself feel loved
C) unwisely
0) without considering the consequences
5) When therapists from the majority white culture are counseling minority cli-
ents, there are often difficulties with according to the text.
A) unconditional positive regard
B) empathic understanding
C) payment
0) congruence
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Personal Theories
198

6) According to research on Rogerian therapy, the correlation between the real
self and the ideal self
A) decreases after therapy.
B) increases after therapy.
e) is unaffected by therapy.
0) is not a useful measure.
7) The leader of an encounter group is called a
A) “facilitator:’
B) “resource person:’
e) “leader:’
0) “trainer:’
8) “Satellite relationships” are
A) unhealthy dependent relationships among family members.
B) relationships with people other than the spouse or primary partner, sometimes
involving sexual intimacy.
e) a primary example of Rogers’s influence on organizational development.
0) consulting relationships with another therapist, to get a second opinion.
9) Rogers suggested that political tensions could be reduced through
A) encounter groups.
B) economic cooperation.
e) providing political leaders with psychotherapy.
0) better education.
10) Maslow’s vision of “Taoist Science” emphasizes
A) the separation of the observer and the subject.
B) control of experimental error.
e) objectivity.
0) love and respect for the subject matter.
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11) The need to be all that you can be, to fulfill all your potentials, is typical of
the level of the need hierarchy.
A) second
B) fourth
C) third
0) fifth
12) Which of the following is listed by Maslow as a characteristic of self-actual-
ized people?
A) need for privacy
B) intelligence
C) career success
0) many friends
13) Which of the following is characteristic of self-actualized people, according to
Maslow?
A) firm belief in the values of their society
B) rejection of sexual needs
C) spontaneity
0) a sense that life is highly predictable
14) Maslow’s need hierarchy theory helps us understand
A) why consumers sometimes pay more for prestigious versions of products.
B) why economically secure people sometimes turn to the arts and education.
C) why consumers choose some products over others.
0) all of the above
15)The term “positive psychology” refers to
A) a current emphasis in psychology on subjective experience and psychological
health.
B) all the empirically verified findings within psychology.
C) a philosophical position that emphasizes scientific observation.
0) political activism in favor of increased funding for psychological research.
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Persona Theories
16) The Dalai Lama has achieved a higher stage of consciousness by following
the Eightfold path. Buddhists call this status
A) actualization.
B) self-actualization.
C) ego-integrity.
D) enlightenment.
17) is defined as any form of spiritual practice.
A) Guru
B) Karma
C) Yoga
D) Koan
18) The story of the blind men touching different parts of an elephant and
each concluding it is a different animal demonstrates the potential problems
of _
A) meditation
B) perception
C) yoga
D) sensation
19) The method of achieving an end of suffering described in the Fourth Noble
Truth is called
A) detachment.
B) meditation.
C) the Eightfold Path.
D) thought-action orientation.
20) Research has demonstrated that meditation improves
A) vocabulary.
B) mathematical ability.
C) perceptual attention.
D) musical ability.
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Persona Theories
201

21) Which of the following theorists was more concerned with personality health
than with pathology?
A) Freud
B) Maslow
C) Horney
D) all of the above
22) Regarding cultural diversity, your text concludes that
A) Researchers are unaware of the problem of cultural bias in personality theory.
B) the theories presented in the text are valid in all cultures.
C) further exploration is needed to determine the extent of cultural bias in the
theories presented.
D) some of the theories presented are culturally biased; others are free of cultural
bias.
23) When adult personality does not change
A) it may be that situational pressures contribute to stability (for example, be-
cause of the similarity of adults to their spouses).
B) it proves the greater importance of childhood experience in determining per-
sonality.
C) it proves that strong inner stability makes a person resistant to environmental
pressures to change.
D) it is clear that environment does not influence adult personality.
24) Emergent determinism suggests that
A) personality emerges from a social context, without which it cannot be under-
stood.
B) basic physiological drives, represented in the nervous system, determine per-
sonality.
C) higher order mental processes have a causal role in personality.
D) ultimately, personality is determined by environmental factors.
25) Which of the following has been proposed as evidence of a healthy personal-
ity?
A) rigidity
B) integration or unity
C) conflict
D) all of the above
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Persona

es
202

Written Assignment for Unit Four
Be sure to refer to this course syllabus for instructions on format,
length, and other information on how to complete this assignment.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1 )List and explain characteristics of a fully functioning person.
2)List and explain the three major conditions for effective therapy, according to
Rogers.
3)Explain the term “paradigm:’ How does a paradigm influence research?

PSY 228

Social Psychology

Text:
Social Psychology: Sociological Perspectives

Second Edition, 2011
ISBN-10: 0-205-66106-8
Autnoris). David E. Rohall, Melissa A. Milkie and Jeffrey W. Lucas
Publisher: Pearson
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. Which early sociologist emphasized the role of society in the development of the self?
a. George Herbert Mead
b. Karl Marx
c. Georg Simmel
d. Herbert Blumer
2. Which sociological social psychology perspective emphasizes the role of meaning and the social
construction of meaning in the study of social psychology?
a. symbolic interaction
b. social structure and personality
c. group processes
d. structural functionalism
3. Which sociological social psychology perspective is likely to emphasize the importance of roles
and statuses in the study of social psychology?
a. symbolic interaction
b. social structure and personality
c. group processes
d. structural functionalism
4. Which sociological social psychology perspective is likely to emphasize the importance of
interactions within groups?
a. symbolic interaction
b. social structure and personal ity
c. group processes
d. structural fu nctional ism
5. The sociological imagination is associated with which social theorist?
a. Emile Durkheim
b. Max Weber
c. C. Wright Mills
d. Auguste Comte
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6. The expectation to look someone in the eye when talking with them refers to a _
a. norm
b. role
c. value
d. belief
7. Derek’s job as a supervisor refers to his relative in the company while the
expectations for how to behave on the job refers to his _
a. role; status
b. job; role
c. status; role
d. status; job
8. Which institution regulates sexual relations and child-rearing in society?
a. economy and work
b. politics
c. family
d. religion
9. Which institution refers to the rituals and beliefs regarding sacred things?
a. economy and work
b. politics
c. family
d. religion
10. Franklin did not think much about how the economy or society affects his life until he lost his
job. Franklin’s internal processesing of his job loss best represents which principle from the
social structure and personality perspective?
a. components principle
b. proximity principle
c. propinquity principle
d. psychology principle
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11. After Donna cheated on her most recent exam, she starts to feel a sense of guilt, making
her reconsider whether she wants to do it again. Donna’s feelings of guilt can be considered a
______ , according to the social structure and personality perspective, leading her to
rethink her future behaviors.
a. social more
b. social norm
c. social force
d. social fear
12. Which of the following is considered a major dimension of group processes?
a. power
b. justice
c. legitimacy
d. All of the above.
13. Janelle wants to study how and why some people are able to tell other people what to do while
others can not. What aspect of group processes is she studying?
a. power
b. status
c. iustice
d. legitimacy
14. What social psychologist is most associated with the concepts of dyads and triads?
a. Emile Durkheim
b. August Comte
c. Herbert Blumer
d. Georg Simmel
15. The difference between dyads and triads is important because:
a. moving from a dyad to a triad exponentially increases the number of relationships
available in an interaction.
b. moving from a dyad to a triad decreases the amount of intimacy possible in a group.
c. moving from a dyad to a triad exponentially decreases the number of relationships
available in an interaction.
d. both a and b
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16. A group of friends getting together for dinner represents a group while a group
of people at your work represents a group.
a. reference; pri mary
b. primary; reference
c. primary; secondary
d. secondary; reference
17. Bob goes to the beach on a hot summer day and is surprised when he observes a group of
people dressed in formal wear sitting in beach chairs amongst sunbathers. Bob was surprised
because the did not meet his expectations for that situation.
a. situation
b. social scripts
c. frame
d. All of the above.
18. require the researcher to weigh individual items differently.
a. Indices
b. Scales
c. both a and b
d. None of the above.
19. Which of the following methods is MOST likely to show causation?
a. ethnography
b. focus group
c. survey
d. experiment
20. An instructor developed a study to determine ways of producing more participation in his
classes. In one class she provided free donuts everyday of class while in another she gave them
nothing. She had her assistant takes notes on the number of comments and questions
students made in each class. Which of these classes represent the control group?
a. the class not given the donuts
b. the class given the donuts
c. other classes that are not part of the experiment
d. both classes would be considered the control group
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21. developed the field of operant conditioning; much of his work relied on
experiments using rats and pigeons.
a. Carl Jung
b. B.F. Skinner
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Joseph Berger
22. At what step in the research process does the researcher employ the library and other
resources and conduct a literature review?
a. step 1
b. step 2
c. step 3
d. step 4
23. At what step in the research process does the researcher actually go out and collect data?
a. step 1
b. step 2
c. step 3
d. step 4
24. Research conducted by interviews, participant observations and ethnographies is referred to
as what kind of research?
a. quantitative
b. qualitative
c. breeching
d. experimental
25. Social scientists must always be concerned with and to
accurately capture the phenomena in question.
a. truth and rei iabi I ity
b. reliability and validity
c. truth and validity
d. probability and validity
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Writing Assignment for Unit One

• I nclude your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page

of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing assignments
that fa II in the followi ng ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism

All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the I nternet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to
the course syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:

1. Think about the concept of poverty. How would a macro-level sociologist study this concept
differently than a micro-level sociologist?
2. Discuss how symbolic interactionists define the concept of society. What role do symbols and
language play in the development of society?
3. Discuss the ways that group structures can impact interaction in groups. Specifically, examine
how group size (i.e., dyads and triads) and types of groups (e.g., primary groups) impact
interactions between people.
34
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. How does Kohn and Schooler’s model of status attainment link economic status, job
characteristics and personal ity?
a. People with lower economic status tend to find work in jobs that have more supervision.
b. People with lower economic status tend to find work in jobs that require less intellectual
flexibility.
c. People with less intellectual flexibility tend to seek jobs that are routinized.
d. All of the above.
2. Bradley, a student at Big U, regularly seeks advice from his professor and mentor, Janet.
According to exchange theory, what kind of exchange is most likely motivating Janet to stay in
this relationship?
a. a direct exchange
b. a reciprocal exchange
c. a generalized exchange
d. All of the above.
3. What was being exchanged among crew members and the captain in George Homan’s research
about exchange processes on small warships?
a. support
b. caring
c. listening
d. All of the above.
4. Who gets the most status in groups based on Bales’ research in social exchanges in small
groups?
a. Those who are perceived as the best managers.
b. Those who are perceived as being the smartest.
c. Those who contribute the most to the group.
d. Those who listen and care the most for the other members.
5. Which of the following best reflects a task group used to study status processes in groups?
a. A group of students at a class lecture.
b. A group of people waiting in line to pay at a store.
c. A group of citizens meeting to resolve a local problem.
d. All of the above.
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6. Why are weak ties so important for finding work?
a. People with whom we have weak ties live and work in circles outside our own.
b. People with whom we have weak ties tend to have better jobs.
c. People with whom we have weak ties aren’t biased against us in the job market.
d. People with whom we have weak ties provide training in getting better jobs.
7. According to status characteristics theory, gender, race and education levels are examples of
a. diffuse status characteristics
b. specific status characteristics
c. roles
d. class positions
8. According to status characteristics theory, skill at playing basketball would be considered
a. diffuse status characteristics
b. specific status characteristics
c. roles
d. class positions
9. People are aware of the status hierarchies that dove lop in task-oriented group:>.
a. almost always
b. usually not
c. always
d. None of the above.
10. Which theorist is most associated with impression management?
a. Auguste Comte
b. Emile Durkheim
c. Herbert Blumer
d. Erving Goffman
11. According to dramaturgical sociology, what area of identity is associated with hanging out with
friends while watching television?
a. front stage
b. back stage
c. performance stage
d. informal groups
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12. A first date would most likely be associated with what area of identity?
a. front stage
b. back stage
c. performance stage
d. informal groups
13. Spencer Cahill’s research on “bathroom behavior” clearly showed that _
a. people act very differently in bathrooms than other areas of life
b. there are rules and norms about behavior in bathrooms
c. people use bathrooms to “retire” from their front stage presentations
d. All of the above.
14. Which of the following has the strongest impact on self-esteem?
a. social comparisons
b. reflected appraisals
c. psychological central ity
d. self-perceptions
15. are observations of our behavior and its consequences.
a. Reflected appraisals
b. Self-oercentions
c. Social comparisons
d. Psychological centrality
16. What is the best way to build a child’s sense of mastery or efficacy?
a. personal accomplishments
b. vicarious experience
c. verbal persuasion
d. emotional arousal
17. Rosenberg’s early research on mattering found it positively related to and
negatively related to _
a. self-esteem; alcoholism
b. depression; self-esteem
c. self-esteem; depression
d. mastery; depression
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18. Given research and theory in life-course sociology, which of the following groups are most likely
to be negatively affected by Hurricane Katrina?
a. a poor White family who survived the storm together
b. a poor African-American family who survived the storm together
c. a middle-class White man who lost his income and had no access to family or friends
during the event
d. a middle-class African-American family who survived the storm together
19. Tony and Rose both received word that they were called up for active duty in the military out of
the reserve component of the forces. Tony is several years older with a wife and child while
Rose is just finishing college. Which dimension of life course sociology best explains why Tony
is more likely to be affected by the mobilization than Rose?
a. historical context
b. social timing
c. linked lives
d. agency
20. Which of the following is NOT considered a primary agent of socialization?
a. family
b. peers
c. schools
d. government
21. Elder’s study of the Great Depression generally showed that _
a. all children were negatively affected by growing up in the Great Depression
b. only children growing up in poverty were affected by the Great Depression
c. the Great Depression had the strongest impact on children’s lives by changing family
roles
d. both band c
22. Kohn’s work on class socialization generally showed that middle-class families tend to stress
______ while working-class families emphasize in raising their
children.
a. autonomy: conformity
b. conformity, freedom
c. freedom, independence
d. conformity: autonomy
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23. Rosenthal and Jacobson’s study of classroom interaction is important because:
a. it showed that children are taught to be racist in the classroom.
b. it showed that 10 scores could be manipulated based on a group prejudice.
c. it showed that children’s 10 scores were not linked to race at all.
d. it showed that racist beliefs and values exist in every classroom.
24. Which of the following groups are most prevalent in American schools based on Adler and
Adler’s research on peer culture?
a. the popular click
b. the wannabes
c. middle friendship circles
d. social isolates
25. Group processes researcher is important to the study of socialization in what way?
a. It shows the importance of peer-group interactions in socialization processes.
b. It shows the importance of family interactions.
c. It shows the importance of the media.
d. It emphasizes the impact of socialization in group settings.
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Writing Assignment for Unit Two

• I nclude your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page

of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism

1. Describe the concept of “doing gender.” Apply this process to other statuses in society (e.g.,
race, ethnicity or sexuality).
2. Review the three ways that interactionists view the development and maintenance of
stratification in society.
3. Discuss the similarities and differences between identity theory and social identity theory.
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
l. Most college students represent which type of person in Merton’s typology of deviance?
a. conformists
b. innovators
c. ritua lists
d. retreatists
2. A homeless person who decides to live in the woods is probably best represented by which of
the following people using Merton’s typology of deviance?
a. conformists
b. innovators
c. ritualists
d. retreatists
3. Which of the following represent strain according to new interpretations of strain theory?
a. negative relationships with family and friends
b. poverty
c. unornploymoot
d. All of the above.
4. Which theory of deviance tries to explain why individuals do not commit crime?
a. labeling theory
b. strai n theory
c. social control theory
d. theory of differential association
5. Sampson and Laub’s research on delinquent and non-delinquent youths in Boston found
delinquency was greater when bonds with which social institutions were weakest?
a. family
b. education
c. work
d. both a and c
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6. In high school, Janet rarely got involved in smoking or drinking. In college, Janet found some
friends who spent most of their off time consuming large amounts of alcohol and other drugs.
Soon, she did the same and did not know anyone who did not spend their time that way. Which
theory best explains Janet’s behavior given this limited amount of information?
a. labeling theory
b. strain theory
c. social control theory
d. theory of differential association
7. Which of the following best exemplifies white collar crimes?
a. stealing a purse
b. simple assault
c. telling a lie to your friend
d. embezzling from work
8. Murder would most likely be considered the breaking of a while picking your
nose in public would be breaking a _
a. more; folkway
b. folkway; more
c. norm; value
d. both are mores
9. Scholars contend that and are two factors that affect the
likelihood of committing a crime.
a. controls; formal sanctions
b. certainty; severity
c. certainty; informal sanctions
d. severity; formal sanctions
10. Given the research on the epidemiology of mental health, which group is most likely to report
problems with drinking? Depression?
a. married people; singles
b. African-Americans; Latinos
c. African-Americans; Whites
d. men; women
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1l. The stresses associated with living in urban areas come from while the stresses
associated with rural areas tend to be a result of _
a. lack of stimulation; ambient hazards
b. ambient hazards; lack of stimulation
c. urban malaise; rural malaise
d. negative life events; chronic stresses
12. How do group processes scholars examine the concept of mental illness?
a. It is viewed as a status characteristic like race or gender.
b. It is viewed as a normal part of group interactions.
c. It is viewed as a major area of group research.
d. It is viewed as a way for individuals in groups to negotiate identity.
13. Which of the following would be considered a total institution?
a. your college
b. a pol ice station
c. a prison
d. a family household
14. Which sociologist is most associated with the concept of stigma?
a. Erving Goffman
b. Georg Simmel
c. George Herbert Mead
d. Herbert Blumer
15. Goffman’s research on total institutions showed that many patients in insane asylums generally
_____ their roles as patients.
a. resist
b. accept
c. use colonization to cope with
d. None of the above.
16. Which of the following coping strategies emphasize patients’ attempts to rebel against asylum
staff?
a. conversion
b. intransigence
c. withdrawal
d. colonization
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17. The loss of a job is represented in which component of the stress process?
a. stressors
b. outcomes
c. mediators and moderators
d. social and economic characteristics
18. LaPiere’s study of prejudice clearly showed that most people _
a. have some prejudice
b. act on their prejudices
c. do not act on their prejudices
d. both a and c
19. Overall, American political attitudes lean on being _
a. very conservative
b. moderately conservative
c. moderately liberal
d. very liberal
20. Which of the following groups could be identified as most liberal in the U.S.?
a. females living in the Midwest
b. females living on the west coast
c. males living in the Midwest
d. males I ivi ng on the West Coast
21. Which of the following groups spend the most time on childcare? Which group has shown an
increase in time spent with childcare?
a. women for both questions
b. men for both questions
c. men; women
d. women; men
22. Which of the following social theorists is most associated with studying racial prejudice in the
United States?
a. George Herbert Mead
b. W.E.B. Du Bois
c. Talcott Parsons
d. William Thomas
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23. Based on status construction theory, what would be the best way to get what you want out of a
group and leave a positive impression?
a. Act like a very nice person.
b. Act like a generous person.
c. Act like a majority member of society.
d. Act like a high-status person.
24. Willer’s research showing presidential approval ratings increasing after the 9/11 terrorist
attacks in the U.S. clearly showed _
a. in-group bias tendencies
b. out-group bias tendencies
c. prejudicial biases
d. ideological alliances
25. The slow treatment of Hurricane Katrina victims was used as an example of in
your text.
a. government inefficiency
b. conscious racism
c. unconscious racism
d. None of the above.
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Writing Assignment for Unit Three

• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page

of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism

All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to
the course syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:

1. How do symbolic interactionists examine the social construction of mental health? Specifically,
review Foucault’s historical analysis of mental illness in western cultures and the
medicalization of deviance.
2. Discuss how community conditions can impact individuals’ mental health. Be specific about
the role of stressors and resources available under different community conditions (e.g.,
urban vs. rural; poor vs. middle class).
3. Review the different dimensions of attitudes. How does the complexity in attitudes help to
explain the relatively weak relationship between a person’s attitudes and their behaviors?
104
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6. According to exchange theory and research, which of the following situations is most likely to
produce a positive emotion?
a. an exchange in which people get the amount equal to their position in the group
b. an exchange in which you get as much as you gave
c. an exchange in which you get less than you gave
d. All of these exchanges will produce a positive emotion.
7. According to the exchange theory, what sentiment is EXPECTED when you get more out of an
exchange than you give?
a. sadness
b. guilt
c. happiness
d. joy
8. According to research and theory of group processes, how does power in relationships affect our
emotions?
a. Relationships characterized as having equal power engender positive emotion.
b. Power makes us feel guilty in social exchanges.
c. Relationships characterized as having unequal power engender positive emotion.
d. Power gives us a positive feeling only when we deserve it during social exchanges.
9. Secondary emotions are _
a. learned through socialization
b. similar to sentiments
c. social emotions
d. All the above.
10. Your feeling that a district attorney has a lot of power refer to which dimension of affect control
theory?
a. eval uation
b. potency
c. activity
d. strength
11. What emotion did wheelchair users employ when managing interactions with “stand-up”
people in Cahill and Eggleston’s study of people with a handicap?
a. fear
b. humor
c. love
d. anger
126
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12. Your friend, Chloe, goes through a bad break-up and her cat runs away all in the same week.
When you and Chloe are out to dinner one night you run into Sarah, a good friend of yours from
school. Chloe expresses the tragedies that have befallen her the past week to Sarah who
proceeds to listen and then changes the conversation. Once back to your dinner, Chloe
expresses her dismay and hurt that Sarah did not seem concerned about her break-up or loss
of her cat. Sarah is upset because her were not met.
a. social scripts
b. emotional scripts
c. sentiments
d. emotions
13. According to Randall Collins’ theory of interaction ritual chains, what role does emotion play in
the maintenance of society?
a. Emotional energies provide the reason for maintaining interactions in society.
b. Emotional scripts provide information about how to behave in society.
c. Emotions give us cues as to whether we are performing our roles in society adequately.
d. Emotions exist within a series of “feeling rules” about how to behave in society.
14. Which of the following jobs does NOT demand high levels of emotion work.
a. waitress
b. teacher
c. customer service agent
d. None of the above.
15. Steve turned to the people around him for help in deciding how to act at a local protest.
According to perception control theory, what form of perception control is he using?
a. independent instruction
b. interdependent instruction
c. organizational instruction
d. i nteractiona I instruction
16. What is the best predictor of an individual participating in a march or a riot?
a. her structural position
b. her concern over a social condition in society
c. her being asked to go to the event
d. her access to resources
127
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17. The vast majority of protests and other collective events have which kind of dispersal?
a. routine dispersal
b. emergency dispersal
c. coerced dispersal
d. active dispersal
18. Which of the following are typical behaviors at a large protest march?
a. People break off into a series of smaller groups.
b. People form lines to access various facilities.
c. People develop arcs and circles around speakers.
d. All of the above are typical behaviors.
19.

_____ is thrill-seeking behaviors designed to produce intense emotions.
a. Potency
b. Edgework
c. Cyberneticism
d. None of the above.
128

20. Enduring emotional meanings in a given society is known as _
a. fundamental sentiments
b. transient sentiments
c. emotional cues
d. emotion work
21. The debate as to whether or not you should stop and look at an accident while driving by,
possibly slowing down the traffic behind you, is an example of a _
a. social dilemma
b. free rider problem
c. group conformity
d. mass hysteria
22. Public radio-radio stations that rely, in part, on listener support to stay in business-run the
risk of what problem?
a. a social dilemma
b. the free rider problem
c. group conform ity
d. mass hysteria
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23. The use of is important to the forming of collective memories.
a. storytelling
b. collective behavior
c. collective emotion
d. framing
24. According to emergent norm theory, the is the type of person who
participates in the group out of curiosity.
a. ego-involved participant
b. curiosity seeker
c. concerned partici pant
d. insecure participant
25. Phase of collective behavior referring to the factors that bring people together into the same
place at the same time.
a. gathering phase
b. homogeneity of mood
c. assembling phase
d. interpretive phase
129
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Writing Assignment for Unit Four

• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page

of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).
• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism

1. Review the theory of interaction ritual chains. How do our emotions contribute to the
maintenance of society according to this theory?
2. Review the role of emotions in exchange processes. What conditions are most I ikely to produce
positive emotions? Negative emotions? What role does power and status play in the
development of emotions in exchange relationships?
3. Apply group processes theory and research related to coalitions to explain the development of
social movements more broadly. First, define the concept of coalition. Second, describe how
coalitions work and the conditions that make them successful. Third, apply this information to
explain how and why people initiate social movements in society.
130

We recommend that you complete your examination by first circling
the correct answer on the Unit Examination in your Study Guide.
Once you have completed your Examination, transfer your answers to
the actual answer sheet that will be submitted for grading.

Writing Assignments

Each Unit examination includes a written component. This
assignment may be in the form of written examination questions,
case study problems, or other types of questions that require
problem-solving solutions. The written assignment affords the
student an opportunity to demonstrate a level of subject mastery
beyond the objective Unit Examinations, which reflects his/her ability
to analyze, synthesize, evaluate and apply his/her knowledge. The
comprehensive Written Examination materials are found immediately
following each Unit Examination.

Written Examination Instructions

• Always include your name, student number and course
number and title on each page of your Written Examination
(this is for your protection in case your materials become
separated).
• Begin each Written Examination by identifying the question
number you are answering followed by the actual question
itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for response to all questions
(i.e. four to five paragraphs with three to five sentences per
paragraph, including an introduction, middle paragraphs,
and conclusion).
• All responses must be typed double-spaced, using a
standard font and 12 point type size for ease of reading and
grading.
• All online responses must be submitted as a MS Word
Document file only.
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• Responses should be no fewer than 750 words and no mor
than 1, 000 words in length.
• Always read your answers and proof for content,
misspellings, and grammar.
• Carefully read and analyze each question. You might
consider starting with questions you feel most
comfortable answering. This will help you build confidence
as you develop your answers.
xi
• Outline your answer as this will help you organize your
thoughts and provide a framework for your essay response.
Key Point

All work must be free of any form of plagiarism.
Put writJgJl2Jl$..wers
into your own words.
Do not simply cut and paste your answers from
the Internet or Wikipedia and do not copy your answers from the
textbook. Plagiarism consists of taking and using the ideas, writings,
or Inventions of anotl-er. without giving credit to that person and
presenting It as one’s own. This is an offense that the University takes
very seriously (see page 18 of the student handbook). An example
of a correctly prepared essay response may be found by visiting the
Student Web Portal via CoastConnection.
Completion of the Written Examinations allows you an opportunity to
demonstrate a more thorough and comprehensive understanding of
the subject matter. Take your time. Be as thorough and complete as
possible. It IS our hope you find these examinations to be a
stimulating and challenging addition to your learning.

Written Assignment for Unit ll>WJ

• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page
of your written assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).

• Begin each written assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by
the actual question itself (in bold type).
• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle
paragraphs and conclusion).
• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a
standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.
Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to written assignments. However,
students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit written assignments
that fall in the following ranges:
Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages.
Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages.
Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.
Plagiarism
All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words.Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to
the course Syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.

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