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Leadership
BAM 550
Text:
Authors:
Publisher:
Leadership: Enhancing The Lessons of Experience
Sixth Edition, 2008
ISBN: 978-0-07-340504-9
Richard Hughes, Robert Ginnett, and Gordon Curphy
McGraw-Hili/Irwin, New York, NY, 10020.
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Leadership
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The idea of “one-man leadership” is a contradiction in terms
B. Leadership is a social influence process shared among all members of
a group
C. Followers are part of the leadership process
D. Leadership is restricted to the influence exerted by someone in a
particular role
2. Among the following, ideal followers are more likely to be perceived as
A. Independent
B. Forward-looking
C. Inspiring
D. Innovative
3. Which of the following statements about “common sense” is false?
A. Effective leadership must be something more than just common sense
B. What seems obvious after you know the results and what you would
have predicted beforehand are not the same thing
C. One of the challenges of understanding leadership is to know when
common sense applies and when it does not
D. The term “common sense” implies practical knowledge about life that
most people have not yet acquired
4. Which of the following statements is false?
A. One needs nothing more than common sense to be a good leader
B. Leaders need to recognize that others’ views are useful
C. Leaders need to recognize when times change and a new direction is
called for
D. One of the challenges of understanding leadership is to know when
common sense applies and when it does not
5. Being a leader is either in one’s genes or not. Which of the following
statement is true?
A. Innate factors more than formative experiences influence leadership
B. Leadership is either innate or acquired, not both
C. Typically most individuals can be categorized based on their innate
qualities as leaders and non-leaders
D. Each person can make the most of leadership opportunities he or she
faces
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6. Identify a myth associated with leadership development.
A. Good leadership is knowing when common sense applies and when it
does not
B. Good leaders are born with the traits and abilities, which make them
successfu I leaders
C. You can only learn leadership by observing it
D. Learning to be a better leader depends on the richness of one’s
experience and the ability and desire to learn
7. Which of the following is not a common myth about leadership develop-
ment?
A. Good leadership is all common sense
B. Leaders are born, not made
C. Leadership can only be taught
D. You can only learn leadership from experience
8. The change in organizational practices can be attributed to
A. Appointing women to leadership positions, which is a departure from
past practices
B. The fact that womens’ attitudes have become similar to those of men
C. Womens’ self-reports of traits such as assertiveness
D. Legislation prohibiting gender-based discrimination at work
9. A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of leader-
ship is representative of the fact that
A. Leadership roles have changed
B. Women themselves have changed
C. Organizational practices have changed
D. Culture has changed
10. Encouraging innovation, growth and development and redefined tasks and
responsibilities best describes a
A. Leader
B. Manager
C. Manager in a later stage of development
D. Leader-manager integrated role
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11. Leaders
A. Tend to accept the definitions of situations presented to them
B. Encourage growth and development in their followers in ways broader
than mere job training
C. Emphasize routinization and control of followers’ behavior
D. Motivate followers more with extrinsic, even contractual consequenc-
es, both positive and negative
12. Leaders
A. Work hard for cooperation
B. Give clear direction
C. Give overlapping and ambiguous assignments
D. Focus on control and results
13. Leaders, as compared to managers, tend to assess their followers’
performance
A. Less in terms of personal criteria
B. More in terms of specific criteria
C. Less in terms of holistic criteria
D. More in terms of idiosyncratic criteria
14. Leaders redefine the parameters of tasks and responsibilities, both for
individual followers and for the entire group by all the following ways ex-
cept
A. Taking a short-term perspective
B. Actively change the situations they are in
C. Through accentuating critical values
D. By marshaling energy to cope with some new threat
15. Wh ich of the followi ng statements concern i ng the manager’s role in
manager-follower-situation interactions is true?
A. Managers tend to reject the definitions of situations presented to
them
B. Managers tend to assign broader rather than narrower tasks for follow-
ers to perform
C. Managers assess their followers’ performance in terms of fairly general
job descri ptions
D. Managers make sure followers conform to policies or procedures
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16. The most commonly cited developmental challenge mentioned by manag-
ers, which while adding to personal pressure, also contributed to profes-
sional growth are
A. Travel requirements
B. The responsibility of meeting deadlines
C. Tasks with the possibility of success and failure
D. Putting in longer hours at work
17. Successful executives mention all of the following as negative feelings
while describing how they feel while working through potent developmen-
tal experiences except feel ing:
A. Uncertain
B. Overwhelmed
C. Fearful
D. Challenged
18. In the process of “learning to learn from experience”, people operating in
the stabilizing period must
A. Overcome the caution generated by ongoi ng success
B. Overcome the tension of challenging what they do not know how to do
C. Attempt at learning a new set of responses and strategies
D. Let go of short-term expectations in favor of more long-term learning
19. The content of leadership programs at the university-level
A. Gives subordinates feedback about their progress
B. Provides a survey of the major leadership findings
C. Focuses on strategic planning
D. Focuses on how to train subordinates
20. __ consist of descriptions of various leadership situations and are used
as a vehicle for leadership discussions.
A. Simulations
B. Role playing
C. Case studies
D. Games
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2l. What is the advantage of role playing as a leadership concept?
A. Individualized feedback to students through leadership behavior rat-
ings
B. Depict the challenges commonly faced in the work environment
C. Used as a vehicle for leadership discussions
D. Greater transferabi I ity to the workplace
22. Improving interpersonal, oral-communication and written-communication
skills are a part of leadership training programs for
A. Mid-level managers
B. First-level supervisors
C. Colleges or universities
D. Maintenance personnel
23. This technique wherein participants are given a limited amount of time
prioritize and respond to a number of notes, is particularly useful in as-
sessing and improving a manager’s planning and time management skills.
A. Simulations
B. Role playing
C. I n-basket exercises
D. Case studies
24. In leaderless group discussions, facilitators and observers rate partici-
pants, which are used to provide managers with feedback about their
A. Supervisory skills
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Planning skills
D. Time management skills
25. These represent the most sophisticated and expensive method for assess-
ing leadership potential.
A. Internet measures
B. Structured interviews
C. Paper-and-pencil measures
D. Assessment centers
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26. What is the purpose of modern-day assessment centers?
A. To select officers for the military
B. To assess, identify and develop leadership potential
C. To select civil servants for the government
D. To select special agents and spies
27. What is the first step in improving the bench strength of the leaders within
an organization?
A. To promote the right people
B. To cultivate employee loyalty
C. To be up-to-date with the latest developments in technology
D. To evaluate and reward its leaders
28. How can one differentiate between successful and unsuccessful leaders?
A. By the attributes of their followers
B. By the attri butes they possess
C. By the productivity of their followers
D. By the behaviors they exhibit
29. What is a disadvantage of judging the effectiveness of a leader based on
the subordinates’ ratings?
A. Results are due to factors beyond leaders’ control
B. There may be no links between ratings and unit performance
C. Raters’ unwillingness to provide tough feedback
D. Raters are unaware of true performance
30. What is the advantage of judging the effectiveness of a leader based on
superiors’ ratings?
A. Multiple raters
B. Subject of leaders’ behaviors
C. Frequently used
D. Actual results
3l. Oftentimes these individuals are given lower performance appraisal ratings
because superiors do not want them to get promoted.
A. Cheerleaders
B. Results only managers
C. I n name on Iy managers
D. Competent managers
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32. This phenomenon is becoming more prevalent as organizations move to-
ward virtual teams or increase the number of people anyone superior may
supervise.
A. Superiors may be largely unaware or unfamiliar with a target leader’s
performance
B. Superiors do not take the time to provide accurate performance ap-
praisal ratings
C. Superiors have difficulty dealing with conflict
D. Superiors would rather give average ratings than deal with the emo-
tions associated with unflattering ratings
33. An in-depth examination of a leader’s behavior in a particular set of
circumstances is a(n)
A. Case study
B. Correlational study
C. Experiment
D. Nomothetic study
34. A politician’s advisor explains how demographic changes in the politician’s
district make it important for the politician to spend relatively more time
in the district seeing constituents than she has needed to in the recent
past. This is an example of
A. Ingratiation
B. An inspirational appeal
C. A consultation
D. A rational persuasion
35. When a minister makes an impassioned plea to members of his
congregation about the good works which could be accomplished if a pro-
posed addition to the church were built, he is
A. Making a personal appeal
B. Making an inspirational appeal
C. Making a rational persuasion
D. Using ingratiation
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36. This occurs when agents ask targets to participate in planning an activity.
A. Rational persuasion
B. Ingratiation
C. Consultation
D. Personal appeal
37. A salesperson’s good-natured or flattering banter with you before you make
a decision about purchasing a product exemplifies
A. Rational persuasion
B. Consultation
C. Personal appeal
D. Ingratiation
38. Coalition tactics
A. Are used when agents seek the aid of others to influence the target
B. Occur when agents ask targets to participate in planning an activity
C. Occur when the agent attempts to get you in a good mood before
maki ng a req uest
D. Are used when agents ask another to do a favor out of friendsh i p
39. __ occur when agents make requests based on their position or author-
ity.
A. Pressure tactics
B. Legitimizing tactics
C. Exchanges
D. Coalition tactics
40. A judge who gives a convicted prisoner a suspended sentence but tells
him to consider the suspension a “sword hanging over your head” if he
breaks the law again is using
A. Legitimizing tactics
B. Coalition tactics
C. Pressure tactics
D. Rational persuasion
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41. Leaders who have only coercive or legitimate power may be able to use
only __ to influence followers.
A. Coalition tactics
B. Inspirational appeals
C. Consultations
D. Ingratiation
42. People typically use legitimizing or pressure tactics when
A. They are at a disadvantage
B. An influencer has the upper hand
C. They expect resistance
D. Parties are relatively equal in power
43. One of the predictions for what the __ generation might look like as its
members move through their 20s is that they will develop community
norms based on rules, standards and personal responsibility.
A. Boomer
B. Xer
C. Nexter
D. Veteran
44. Moral reasoning refers to
A. The process leaders use to make decisions about values and ethics
B. The espoused values of individuals
C. The morality of individuals per se
D. The process leaders use to make decisions about ethical and unethi-
cal behaviors
45. In the pre-conventional level of moral development, the criteria for moral
behavior
A. Are based pri mari Iy on self -i nterest
B. Are based primarily on gaining others’ approval
C. Are based on universal, abstract principles
D. Are based primarily on behaving conventionally
46. What do leaders with strong recognition values value the most?
A. Achievement
B. Fame
C. Meeting new people
D. Moral rules
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47. Leaders with strong __ values enjoy competition, being seen as influ-
ential and drive hard to make an impact.
A. Recognition
B. Altruistic
C. Power
D. Hedonism
48. Film directors, musical conductors or marketing leaders are examples of
leaders with strong
A. Affiliation values
B. Power values
C. Security values
D. Aesthetics values
49. Leaders with these values are motivated by pleasure, variety and excite-
ment and can often be found in the entertainment, hospitality, recreation,
sports, sales or travel industries.
A. Tradition
B. Hedonism
C. Altruistic
D. Affiliation
50. This is not an organizational level of leadership in the principle-centered
leadership approach.
A. Managerial
B. Personal
C. Cultural
D. Interpersonal
5l. Leaders and followers who possess higher levels of this type of intelligence
tend to be quick learners and have the ability to make accurate deduc-
tions, assumptions and inferences with relatively unfamiliar information.
A. Analytic i ntell igence
B. Practical intelligence
C. Creative i ntell igence
D. Social intelligence
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52. Students in a school for the mentally challenged did very poorly on
standardized tests yet consistently found ways to defeat the school’s
elaborate security system. In this situation the students possessed a rela-
tively high level of
A. Social intelligence
B. Analytic intelligence
C. Practical intelligence
D. Creative i ntell igence
53. A leader who has a lot of knowledge and experience in leading a
pharmaceutical research team may feel like a duck out of water when
asked to lead a major fund-raising effort for a charitable institution. This
example illustrates that practical intelligence
A. Is concerned with knowledge and experience
B. Is domain specific
C. Is the ability to learn
D. Is the ability to produce work that is novel
54. The ability to produce work that is both novel and useful is called
A. Practical intelligence
B. Social intelligence
C. Analytic intelligence
D. Creative intelligence
55. Most intelligence and aptitude tests are good examples of
A. Systems th i n ki ng
B. Convergent thinking
C. Picture thinking
D. Divergent thinking
56. What is traditionally viewed as creativity and are skills that help people
recognize novel patterns or connections?
A. Practical intelligence
B. Analytic intelligence
C. Synthetic abi I ity
D. Intrinsic motivation
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57. What term relates to a component of creative intelligence that deals with
people either preferring to modify what already exists or completely start-
ing over with new solutions?
A. Thinking style
B. Environmental factors
C. Personality factors
D. Analytic intelligence
58. Lower prudence, higher openness to experience and higher surgency
scores are related to
A. I ntri nsic motivation
B. Personality factors
C. Analytic intelligence
D. Environmental factors
59. Creative people are most likely to focus on
A. The need to meet deadlines
B. Impressing others
C. Making money
D. Solving the problem at hand
60. Which of the following statements concerning 360-degree feedback sys-
tems is false?
A. Companies that used 360-degree feedback systems had a 10.6 per
cent decrease in shareholder val ue
B. Most 360-degree feedback systems are designed to make compari-
sons between people
C. 360-degree feedback are data based and provide good development
feedback
D. It provides insight into self-perceptions and others’ perceptions of
leadership skills
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61. Which of the following statements about 360-degree feedback systems is
true?
A. 360-degree feedback results affect behavioral change per se
B. 360-degree feedback are the only sources of “how” feedback for
leadersh i p practitioners
C. 360-degree feedback should be built around an organization’s
competency model
D. It is mandatory for all leaders to receive 360-degree feedback
62. Strategic differences with management and difficulty making strategic
transitions are behaviors exhibited by derailed managers who
A. Have shown inability to develop or adapt to new bosses
B. Have shown inability to build and lead a team
C. Have failed to meet business objectives
D. Have problems with interpersonal relationships
63. Derailed managers exhibiting the derailment pattern that has to do with
an inability to build relationships with coworkers are characterized by
which of the following?
A. Failure to staff effectively
B. Organizational isolation
C. Lack of hard work
D. Difficulty making strategic transitions
64. What is cited as the most common reason for CEO failure?
A. Making poor decisions concerning which markets to pursue
B. Problems developing a vision or strategy for the company
C. The inability to meet earnings projections
D. Failure to keep promises, commitments or deadlines
65. Which of the following underlies the derailment pattern of the inability of
managers to lead and build a team?
A. The presence of dark side traits
B. Inadequate distribution channels
C. Poor decisions concerning which products to develop
D. Lying about business results
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66. As a difference between male-female patterns, females were more likely to
derail because of
A. Their inflexibility
B. Their arrogance
C. Their abrasive interpersonal style
D. Their inability to deal with complex organizational issues
67. The insight component of the development pipeline concerned with
A. On-the-job experiences
B. Providing leaders accurate feedback on their strengths
C. Acquiring new knowledge and skills
D. Working on development goals that matter
68. Seventy to eighty percent of the action steps in a development plan
should be
A. Observation
B. Past experience
C. Job related
D. Acquiring new knowledge
69. Which of the following would most likely result in consistently higher ef-
fort and performance?
A. Goals that are both specific and difficult
B. Goals that are very difficult to achieve
C. “Do your best” goals
D. Having clear goals
70. Which of the following statements about goals is false?
A. Determining just how challenging to make goals creates a dilemma for
leaders
B. Goal commitment is critical and is often as high as commitment to
goals followers helped to set
C. Followers exerted the greatest effort when goals were accompanied by
feedback
D. Easily attainable goals result in higher levels of effort and perfor-
mance
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71. This occurs when leaders articulate high expectations for followers.
A. Hawthorne effect
B. Pygmalion effect
C. Placebo effect
D. Hierarchy effect
72. Leaders who have little faith in their followers’ ability to accomplish a goal
are rarely disappointed. This refers to
A. Placebo effect
B. Pygmalion effect
C. Golem effect
D. Hierarchy effect
73. “Motivated performance is the result of conscious choice” is a fundamen-
tal assumption of
A. Self-efficacy
B. Expectancy theory
C. Equity theory
D. Goal setting
74. In effort-to-performance expectancy,
A. The follower must determine whether the outcome is sufficiently posi-
tive to be worth the time and effort
B. The follower esti mates the Ii kel i hood of receivi ng a reward, given that
she achieves the desired level of performance
C. The follower must determine the likely outcomes, assuming that the
previous two conditions have been met
D. The follower estimates the likelihood of performing the desired behav
ior adequately, assuming she puts forth the required effort
75. Personal inputs refer to
A. Skills
B. Recognition
C. Job satisfaction
D. Personal growth
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76. Which of the following is most important in the equity theory?
A. The evaluation of equality of inputs or equality of outcomes
B. The absolute value of one’s own outcomes considered by itself
C. The absolute value of one’s own inputs considered by itself
D. The relationship between the two ratios
77. Which of the following statements about the equity theory is true?
A. If the ratios are significantly different, a follower is not motivated to
take change
B. As long as there is general equality between the two ratios, there is
motivation to change
C. The perception of inequity creates a state of tension and an inherent
pressure for change
D. Exactly what the follower will be motivated to do depends on the di-
rection of equality
78. One’s core beliefs about being able to successfully perform a given task is
called
A. Self-actualization
B . Self-efficacy
C. Self-esteem
D. Self-fulfillment
79. Which of the following is an advantage of decentralized organizations?
A. Uniform policies and procedures
B. Minimal participation in the decision process
C. Greater acceptance and ownership of decision outcomes
D. Clearer coordination procedures
80. What is the disadvantage of functional organizations?
A. Poor coord i nation across departments
B. Duplication of resources
C. Less in depth technical expertise
D. Weak coord i nation across different prod uct grou pi ngs
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81. What is the advantage of a product organization design?
A. Centralized decision making and control
B. Efficient use of scarce resources
C. Skill development for technical personnel
D. It places a premium on organizational goals
82. An organization with a stable, well-established product line and the need
for close coordination between functions would be best off with which
type of design?
A. Bureaucratic
B. Functional
C. Matrix
D. Product
83. What is the greatest disadvantage of the matrix design?
A. Decreased lateral communication and coordination
B. Inefficient utilization of human resources
C. Employees end up working for two bosses
D. It can create scheduling nightmares
84. This represents the degree to which a leader’s work group is affected by
the activities of other subunits within the organization.
A. Centralization
B. Latera I interdependence
C. Horizontal complexity
D. Spatial complexity
85. This is the weakest element of situational favorability.
A. Subordinate acceptance
B. Leader-member relations
C. Task structure
D. Position power
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86. The highest levels of situational favorability occur when
A. Leader-member relations are good, the task is structured and position
power is high
B. There are high levels of leader-member conflict, the task is unstruc-
tured and the leader does not have the power to reward/punish subor-
di nates
C. Leader-member relations are good, the task is unstructured and posi-
tion power is low
D. There are high levels of leader-member conflict, the task is structured
and the leader has the power to reward/punish subordinates
87. Which leader behaviors are marked by attention to the competing de-
mands of treating followers equally while recognizing status differentials
between the leader and the followers?
A. Achievement-oriented leadership
B. Directive leadership
C. Participative leadership
D. Supportive leadership
88. Leaders exhibiting participative leadership
A. Are very similar to the task behaviors from SLT
B. Are very similar to the relationship behaviors in SLT
C. Engage in the behaviors that mark consultative and group behaviors
D. Would be seen as both demanding and supporting in interactions with
their followers
89. Internal-Iocus-of-control followers
A. Are much more satisfied with leaders who exhibit achievement-orient-
ed behaviors than they are with leaders who are supportive
B. Believe outcomes are a result of their own decisions
C. Are more satisfied with directive leader behaviors than they are with
participative leader behaviors
D. Believe they are, relatively speaking, “pawns of fate”
90. Which of the following is not a variable in the path-goal theory?
A. Achievement
B. Leader Behaviors
C. Followers
D. The Sitiuation
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9l. The __ authority system is associated with leaders thought to possess,
divine or superhuman qualities.
A. Traditional
B. Legal-rational
C. Charismatic
D. Personalized
92. Transactional leadership
A. Occurs when a person possesses authority not because of tradition,
but because of the laws that govern the position occupied
B. Serves to change the status quo by appealing to followers’ values and
their sense of higher purpose
C. Occurs when the traditions of society dictate who has authority and
how this authority can be used
D. Occurs when leaders and followers are in some type of exchange
relationship in order to get needs met
93. This leadership serves to change the status quo by appealing to followers’
values and their sense of higher purpose.
A. Supportive
B. Transactional
C. Transformational
D. Participative
94. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Transactional leaders are always controversial
B. All transformational leaders are charismatic
C. All charismatic leaders are transformational
D. Transactional leaders are also adept at reframing issues
95. According to the research on charismatic leadership, which of the follow-
ing characteristics would fall in the leader category in the L-F-S intera-c
tional framework?
A. Crises
B. Feelings of empowerment
C. Rhetorical skills
D. Task interdependence
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96. According to research, the leader’s vision is
A. Consistent with current realities
B. Usually presented in written form so subordinates can study it
C. Often depressing (in the short run) for the subordinates who must
change their view
D. Often a collaborative effort
97. Which of the following statements about transformational leaders is true?
A. They are inherently future-oriented
B. Their vision is based solely on their own values
C. They sometimes take credit for others’ accomplishments
D. They tend to be emotionally expressive
98. Charismatic leaders
A. Use abstract and colorless rational discourse to reframe issues
B. Make extensive use of stories to make their points
C. Are adept at tailoring their language to particular groups
D. Are good in engaging groups mentally and emotionally
99. Charismatic leaders tend to be
A. Extremely smart
B. Data-driven
C. Emotionally expressive
D. Fairly introverted
100. This takes place when followers do no more than abide by the policies and
procedures surrounding change requests.
A. Cooperation
B. Compliance
C. Commitment
D. Malicious compliance
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